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NEET ]1[ Contd...

NEET Biology - Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Duration: 150 minutesTotal Marks: 600Questions: 150Negative Marking: -1

Instructions:

  1. Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
  2. Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
  3. Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
  4. Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Which option best defines the cell cycle according to the uploaded chapter?
(1)A sequence in which a cell only divides its cytoplasm into two parts
(2)A sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesises other constituents and divides into two daughter cells
(3)A process in which chromosomes are formed without cell growth
(4)A resting interval in which DNA replication and cell growth stop completely
2.During cell division, which set of events must be coordinated to ensure correct formation of progeny cells with intact genomes?
(1)Cell growth, DNA replication and cell division
(2)Only nuclear division and spindle formation
(3)Only DNA replication and cytokinesis
(4)Cell growth only during M phase and no DNA replication
3.The two basic phases of the cell cycle are:
(1)G1 phase and S phase
(2)Interphase and M phase
(3)Karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(4)Prophase and metaphase
4.Which duration statement is correctly matched?
(1)Human cultured cells — about 90 minutes; yeast — about 24 hours
(2)Human cultured cells — about 24 hours; yeast — about 90 minutes
(3)All eukaryotic cells — exactly 24 hours
(4)All unicellular organisms — exactly 90 minutes
5.In an average 24-hour human cell cycle, which statement is closest to the chapter description?
(1)M phase lasts more than 95% of the cycle
(2)Cell division proper lasts about one hour, while interphase lasts more than 95% of the cycle
(3)Interphase lasts exactly one hour and M phase takes the rest
(4)G1 alone lasts 95% and S/G2 occur in the remaining one hour
6.The M phase usually starts and ends with which events respectively?
(1)Cytokinesis and DNA replication
(2)Karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(3)Synapsis and chiasmata formation
(4)Metaphase plate formation and interkinesis
7.Interphase is correctly subdivided as:
(1)G1, S and G2
(2)S, M and G0
(3)Prophase, metaphase and anaphase
(4)Leptotene, zygotene and pachytene
8.Which statement best describes G1 phase?
(1)Interval between DNA replication and mitosis; DNA is actively replicated
(2)Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication; cell grows but does not replicate DNA
(3)Phase of chromosome separation and cytokinesis
(4)Inactive phase where the cell is metabolically dead
9.If a diploid cell has 2n chromosomes and DNA content 2C at G1, what is expected after S phase according to the chapter?
(1)Chromosomes 4n, DNA 4C
(2)Chromosomes 2n, DNA 4C
(3)Chromosomes n, DNA 2C
(4)Chromosomes 4n, DNA 2C
10.In animal cells during S phase, the correct location-event pair is:
(1)DNA replication in cytoplasm; centriole duplication in nucleus
(2)DNA replication in nucleus; centriole duplication in cytoplasm
(3)Protein synthesis in nucleus; spindle assembly in cytoplasm
(4)Chromosome separation in nucleus; cell plate formation in cytoplasm
11.During G2 phase, the chapter highlights:
(1)Protein synthesis in preparation for mitosis while cell growth continues
(2)DNA content decreases from 4C to 2C
(3)Chromosomes align on the equatorial plate
(4)Homologous chromosomes undergo synapsis
12.Which statement about G0 phase is correct?
(1)Cells enter it from S phase after DNA replication fails
(2)Cells are metabolically inactive and permanently dead
(3)Cells exit G1, remain metabolically active and do not proliferate unless required
(4)Only plant meristem cells enter G0
13.Which statement is consistent with the chapter regarding mitotic division?
(1)Animals show mitosis in haploid somatic cells as the usual rule
(2)Plants can show mitosis in both haploid and diploid cells
(3)Male honey bees are given as diploid exceptions
(4)Mitotic division is absent in plant haploid stages
14.Mitosis is called equational division mainly because:
(1)DNA content never doubles before it
(2)Chromosome number in parent and progeny cells remains the same
(3)It produces four haploid cells
(4)It always occurs only in haploid cells
15.The four stages of mitotic karyokinesis are:
(1)Prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
(2)Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene and diplotene
(3)G1, S, G2 and M
(4)Synapsis, crossing over, chiasmata and interkinesis
16.Prophase of mitosis follows which interphase phases and is marked by what main event?
(1)G1 and S; terminalisation of chiasmata
(2)S and G2; initiation of chromosomal condensation
(3)G2 and G0; cytokinesis
(4)Metaphase and anaphase; synapsis
17.Which pair is correctly matched for prophase?
(1)Asters — DNA replication in nucleus
(2)Mitotic apparatus — two asters with spindle fibres
(3)Centrosome — breaks down at the end of prophase
(4)Spindle fibres — form the cell plate
18.At the end of prophase, which set is not seen under the microscope according to the chapter?
(1)Nucleolus, nuclear envelope, Golgi complexes and ER
(2)Centromeres, chromatids, spindle fibres and asters
(3)Chromatids, centromeres, kinetochores and metaphase plate
(4)Cell plate, chiasmata, synaptonemal complex and bivalents
19.Which event marks the start of metaphase and why is this stage useful for chromosome study?
(1)Nuclear envelope reforms; chromosomes are least condensed
(2)Complete nuclear envelope disintegration; chromosome condensation is complete and morphology is easiest to study
(3)Centromeres split; chromatids move to poles
(4)Cell plate forms; chromosomes become invisible
20.Kinetochores are:
(1)Small disc-shaped structures on centromere surfaces that serve as spindle-fibre attachment sites
(2)X-shaped structures formed at crossing-over sites
(3)Microtubules radiating from centrosomes
(4)Precursors of the middle lamella in plant cytokinesis
21.The metaphase plate refers to:
(1)The furrow formed during animal cytokinesis
(2)The plane of chromosome alignment at metaphase
(3)The complex formed by synapsed homologous chromosomes
(4)The nuclear envelope around daughter nuclei
22.During mitotic anaphase:
(1)Centromeres split and chromatids separate, with centromeres leading toward poles
(2)Homologous chromosomes pair and form bivalents
(3)Nucleolus and nuclear membrane reappear
(4)Chromosomes align along the metaphase plate for the first time
23.Which set of events belongs to telophase?
(1)Chromosome decondensation, nuclear envelope development and reformation of nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER
(2)Synapsis, crossing over and recombinase action
(3)Centromere splitting and chromatid movement from metaphase plate
(4)Complete disappearance of nuclear envelope as the first mitotic event
24.Cytokinesis is best described as:
(1)Separation of cytoplasm to form two daughter cells after karyokinesis
(2)Separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I
(3)Condensation of chromatin into visible chromosomes
(4)Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochores
25.Which comparison of animal and plant cytokinesis is correct?
(1)Animal: cell plate from centre outward; Plant: furrow inward
(2)Animal: plasma membrane furrow deepens inward; Plant: wall formation starts in centre and grows outward
(3)Animal and plant cells both form only a cell plate
(4)Plant cytokinesis uses a furrow because plant cell wall is flexible
26.If karyokinesis occurs repeatedly without cytokinesis, the condition formed is:
(1)Dyad, as in telophase I
(2)Syncytium, as in liquid endosperm of coconut
(3)Tetrad, as in telophase II
(4)Bivalent, as in zygotene
27.Which outcome is usually associated with mitosis?
(1)Four genetically variable haploid cells
(2)Diploid daughter cells with identical genetic complement
(3)Reduction of chromosome number by half
(4)Exchange between non-sister chromatids
28.Which statement correctly represents the significance of mitosis?
(1)It disturbs the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio permanently
(2)It restores nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio and contributes to repair/replacement of epidermis, gut lining and blood cells
(3)It occurs only once during gamete formation
(4)It prevents continuous growth in plant meristems
29.Meiosis is called reduction division because it:
(1)Doubles the DNA content permanently
(2)Reduces the chromosome number by half during gamete formation
(3)Conserves chromosome number in every daughter cell like mitosis
(4)Produces two identical diploid cells only
30.Which feature of meiosis is correctly stated?
(1)Two cycles of DNA replication and one nuclear division
(2)One cycle of DNA replication and two sequential cycles of nuclear/cell division
(3)No chromosome pairing or recombination
(4)Two diploid cells at the end of meiosis II
31.Correct sequence of prophase I substages is:
(1)Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis
(2)Zygotene, leptotene, pachytene, diakinesis, diplotene
(3)Pachytene, zygotene, leptotene, diplotene, diakinesis
(4)Leptotene, pachytene, zygotene, diakinesis, diplotene
32.In leptotene:
(1)Chromosomes become gradually visible and compaction continues
(2)Chiasmata terminalise
(3)Synaptonemal complex dissolves
(4)Centromeres split and chromatids separate
33.Synapsis and bivalent formation are most directly associated with:
(1)Zygotene
(2)Anaphase II
(3)Telophase II
(4)G0 phase
34.Recombination nodules appear during:
(1)Leptotene
(2)Zygotene
(3)Pachytene
(4)Diplotene
35.Which statement about crossing over is correct?
(1)It occurs between sister chromatids and is non-enzymatic
(2)It is exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes and is enzyme-mediated by recombinase
(3)It is completed by the end of zygotene before tetrads appear
(4)It occurs during anaphase II after centromere splitting
36.Chiasmata are:
(1)X-shaped structures at the crossover sites seen as homologues tend to separate in diplotene
(2)Disc-shaped attachment sites at centromeres
(3)Microtubules radiating from centrosomes
(4)Four haploid cells formed after meiosis II
37.Diakinesis is best identified by:
(1)Terminalisation of chiasmata, full chromosome condensation and transition to metaphase I
(2)Appearance of recombination nodules and enzyme recombinase
(3)Formation of the cell plate in plant cytokinesis
(4)Reappearance of nuclear membrane and dyad formation
38.At metaphase I and anaphase I respectively:
(1)Sister chromatids align singly; centromeres split
(2)Bivalents align on equatorial plate; homologous chromosomes separate while sister chromatids remain associated
(3)Chromosomes decondense; cell plate forms
(4)Centrioles duplicate; DNA content doubles
39.Which statement about interkinesis is correct?
(1)It is long-lived and includes DNA replication
(2)It lies between the two meiotic divisions and has no DNA replication
(3)It is the same as G1 before S phase
(4)It ends with the formation of four haploid cells
40.Which sequence fits meiosis II?
(1)Prophase II: synapsis; metaphase II: bivalents; anaphase II: homologues separate
(2)Prophase II: chromosomes compact; metaphase II: chromosomes align at equator; anaphase II: centromeres split; telophase II: four haploid cells
(3)Prophase II: DNA replication; metaphase II: chiasmata terminalise; telophase II: dyad
(4)Interkinesis: crossing over; anaphase II: sister chromatids remain associated
41.Which of the following statements about the cell cycle is incorrect?
(1)It includes duplication of genome and synthesis of cellular constituents
(2)Cell growth is continuous in terms of cytoplasmic increase
(3)DNA synthesis occurs continuously throughout all stages of the cycle
(4)Replicated chromosomes are distributed to daughter nuclei during division
42.Choose the incorrectly matched pair.
(1)Human cells in culture — approximately 24 hours per division cycle
(2)Yeast — about 90 minutes for the cell cycle
(3)Cell division proper in 24-hour human cell cycle — only about an hour
(4)Interphase — less than 5% of the duration of cell cycle
43.Which statement is not true for interphase?
(1)It is divided into G1, S and G2 phases
(2)G1 phase is metabolically active and lacks DNA replication
(3)S phase marks DNA synthesis
(4)G2 phase is characterised by homologous chromosome synapsis
44.Identify the incorrect S-phase statement.
(1)DNA synthesis or replication occurs in S phase
(2)DNA amount doubles from 2C to 4C
(3)Chromosome number doubles from 2n to 4n in a diploid cell
(4)In animal cells, centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
45.Which statement about G0 phase is false?
(1)Heart cells are an example of adult animal cells that do not appear to divide
(2)G0 is reached by cells exiting G1 phase
(3)G0 cells remain metabolically active
(4)G0 cells are necessarily dead and can never be called upon again
46.Which of the following is not supported by the chapter?
(1)Animal mitosis is usually seen in diploid somatic cells
(2)Male honey bees are a haploid exception where mitosis can occur
(3)Plants may show mitotic division in both haploid and diploid cells
(4)Mitosis is completely absent in haploid cells of all organisms
47.Which statement is incorrect regarding M phase/mitosis?
(1)M phase is a dramatic period involving major reorganisation of cell components
(2)Mitosis is called equational division because chromosome number remains the same
(3)Clear-cut lines can always be drawn between mitotic stages
(4)Karyokinesis includes prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
48.Which of the following is not a prophase event in mitosis?
(1)Initiation of chromosomal condensation
(2)Centrosome movement towards opposite poles
(3)Chromosomes seen as two chromatids attached at centromere
(4)Complete chromosome alignment at the metaphase plate
49.Select the incorrect statement about metaphase.
(1)Complete nuclear envelope disintegration marks the start of metaphase
(2)Chromosome morphology is easiest to study at metaphase
(3)Kinetochores are small disc-shaped structures at centromeres
(4)Metaphase begins with reappearance of nucleolus and ER
50.Which statement is incorrect?
(1)In mitotic anaphase, centromeres split and chromatids separate
(2)In mitotic anaphase, chromatids move toward opposite poles
(3)In meiosis I anaphase, sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres
(4)In meiosis I anaphase, centromeres split like mitotic anaphase
51.Which of these is not a telophase event?
(1)Chromosomes decondense and lose individuality
(2)Nuclear envelope forms around each chromosome cluster
(3)Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
(4)Recombination nodules appear at crossing-over sites
52.Which statement is incorrect about cytokinesis?
(1)Cytokinesis separates the cytoplasm after karyokinesis
(2)Animal cells use a furrow in the plasma membrane
(3)Plant wall formation starts from the existing lateral walls and grows inward only
(4)Cell plate represents the middle lamella between adjacent cells
53.Select the wrong statement.
(1)Mitochondria and plastids are distributed between daughter cells during cytoplasmic division
(2)Karyokinesis without cytokinesis may give a syncytium
(3)Liquid endosperm in coconut is cited as an example of syncytium
(4)Cytokinesis is the same as chromosome condensation
54.Which of the following is not a significance/outcome of mitosis in the chapter?
(1)Growth of multicellular organisms
(2)Restoration of nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(3)Cell repair and replacement of gut lining cells
(4)Production of four genetically variable haploid cells
55.Which statement is not correct for meiosis?
(1)It is associated with gametogenesis in plants and animals
(2)It reduces chromosome number by half
(3)It ensures production of the haploid phase in sexually reproducing organisms
(4)It restores the diploid phase without fertilisation
56.Which is the false statement about key features of meiosis?
(1)It has two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division
(2)It has a single cycle of DNA replication
(3)Meiosis I is initiated after parental chromosomes replicate in S phase
(4)Meiosis II ends with two diploid cells
57.Which statement is incorrect?
(1)Prophase I is longer and more complex than prophase of mitosis
(2)Leptotene precedes zygotene
(3)Synapsis begins in zygotene
(4)Diakinesis occurs before diplotene
58.Which of the following is not true for pachytene/crossing over?
(1)Four chromatids of each bivalent become distinct
(2)Recombination nodules appear
(3)Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(4)Crossing over is a non-enzymatic exchange between sister chromatids
59.Choose the incorrect pair.
(1)Diplotene — dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(2)Chiasmata — X-shaped structures at crossover sites
(3)Diakinesis — terminalisation of chiasmata
(4)Pachytene — nuclear envelope breaks down at the end
60.Which statement is incorrect for meiosis I?
(1)Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate in metaphase I
(2)Microtubules attach to kinetochores of homologous chromosomes in metaphase I
(3)Sister chromatids separate in anaphase I
(4)Telophase I is followed by cytokinesis to form a dyad
61.Which statement about interkinesis is incorrect?
(1)It is a stage between the two meiotic divisions
(2)It is generally short lived
(3)DNA replication occurs during interkinesis
(4)It is followed by prophase II
62.Which of the following is not a feature of meiosis II?
(1)It resembles normal mitosis
(2)In metaphase II, chromosomes align at the equator
(3)In anaphase II, homologous chromosomes separate while sister chromatids remain associated
(4)Telophase II and cytokinesis produce four haploid daughter cells
63.Which statement contradicts the significance of meiosis described in the chapter?
(1)Meiosis conserves species-specific chromosome number across generations
(2)Meiosis increases genetic variability in populations
(3)Variations are important for evolution
(4)Meiosis eliminates all genetic variability from sexually reproducing populations
64.Identify the correct statements:
A. All organisms, including the largest, start life from a single cell.
B. Growth and reproduction are characteristics of cells and living organisms.
C. All cells reproduce by dividing into three equal daughter cells.
D. Cycles of growth and division allow one cell lineage to form millions of cells.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and D only
(2)A and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
65.Identify the correct statements:
A. DNA replication, cell growth and cell division need coordination.
B. Cell growth is continuous, whereas DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific stage.
C. The cell cycle ends before the cell synthesises other constituents.
D. Distribution of replicated chromosomes to daughter nuclei occurs during cell division.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and C only
(2)A, B and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
66.Identify the correct statements:
A. A typical human cell in culture divides about once every 24 hours.
B. Yeast may complete the cell cycle in about 90 minutes.
C. Cell-cycle duration is fixed for all organisms and all cell types.
D. Interphase lasts more than 95% of the cell-cycle duration.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and C only
(2)B and D only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
67.Identify the correct statements:
A. M phase represents actual cell division or mitosis.
B. Interphase is between two successive M phases.
C. M phase starts with cytokinesis and usually ends with karyokinesis.
D. Interphase is only a metabolically inactive resting phase.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and B only
(2)B and C only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)A, B and D only
68.Identify the correct statements:
A. G1 lies between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
B. S phase doubles DNA content without increasing chromosome number.
C. G2 involves protein synthesis in preparation for mitosis.
D. G1 is the phase where DNA content changes from 2C to 4C.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)B and D only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
69.Identify the correct statements:
A. In animal cells, DNA replication begins in the nucleus during S phase.
B. In animal cells, centriole duplication occurs in the cytoplasm during S phase.
C. During S phase, chromosome number doubles from 2n to 4n.
D. DNA synthesis and DNA replication refer to the S phase.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and C only
(2)A, B and D only
(3)B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
70.Identify the correct statements:
A. Some adult animal cells, such as heart cells, do not appear to divide.
B. G0 is entered by cells that exit G1.
C. G0 cells are metabolically active.
D. G0 cells proliferate continuously and do not respond to organismal requirement.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
71.Identify the correct statements:
A. In animals, mitotic division is usually seen in diploid somatic cells.
B. Male honey bees are cited as a haploid exception.
C. Plants can show mitotic division only in diploid cells.
D. Some lower plants and social insects may show haploid cells dividing by mitosis.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and C only
(2)B and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
72.Identify the correct statements:
A. M phase involves major reorganisation of cell components.
B. Mitosis is called equational division.
C. Mitosis is divided into four karyokinetic stages for convenience.
D. Cell division has sharp, universally clear-cut boundaries between stages.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)B and D only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
73.Identify the correct statements:
A. Prophase follows S and G2 phases.
B. Chromosomal material begins to condense and untangle.
C. Each centrosome radiates microtubules called asters.
D. The nucleolus and nuclear envelope remain prominently visible at the end of prophase.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
74.Identify the correct statements:
A. Nuclear envelope disintegration marks the start of metaphase.
B. Metaphase is suitable for studying chromosome morphology.
C. Kinetochores are spindle-fibre attachment sites.
D. The metaphase plate is the plate formed during plant cytokinesis.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
75.Identify the correct statements:
A. At anaphase onset, chromosomes at the metaphase plate split simultaneously.
B. Daughter chromatids begin migration to opposite poles.
C. The centromere faces away from the pole and trails behind arms.
D. Centromeres split and chromatids separate.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and C only
(2)B and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
76.Identify the correct statements:
A. Chromosomes at poles decondense.
B. Chromosomal identity as discrete elements is lost.
C. Nuclear envelope forms around chromosome clusters at each pole.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and C only
(2)B and D only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
77.Identify the correct statements:
A. Cytokinesis separates the cytoplasm.
B. In animal cells, a furrow in the plasma membrane deepens and joins at the centre.
C. In plant cells, wall formation starts at the centre and grows outward.
D. Cell plate represents the primary nucleus of the daughter cell.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
78.Identify the correct statements:
A. Mitochondria and plastids are distributed between daughter cells during cytoplasmic division.
B. If karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis, a multinucleate condition may arise.
C. Syncytium is exemplified by liquid endosperm in coconut.
D. Syncytium is a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
79.Identify the correct statements:
A. Mitosis usually produces daughter cells with identical genetic complement.
B. It is responsible for growth of multicellular organisms.
C. It helps restore nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
D. It is unrelated to cell repair or plant meristem growth.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
80.Identify the correct statements:
A. Sexual reproduction includes fusion of two haploid gametes.
B. Gametes are formed from specialised diploid cells.
C. Meiosis produces haploid daughter cells.
D. Fertilisation restores the diploid phase.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and C only
(2)B and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
81.Identify the correct statements:
A. Meiosis includes meiosis I and meiosis II.
B. Only one cycle of DNA replication occurs.
C. Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occur.
D. Four haploid cells form at the end of meiosis II.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and B only
(2)C and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
82.Identify the correct statements:
A. Prophase I is longer and more complex than mitotic prophase.
B. Leptotene is followed by zygotene.
C. During leptotene, chromosomes become gradually visible.
D. Synapsis begins before leptotene.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
83.Identify the correct statements:
A. Synaptonemal complex accompanies synapsis.
B. A bivalent or tetrad is formed by a pair of synapsed homologues.
C. Four chromatids of each bivalent become distinct in pachytene.
D. Recombination nodules appear in leptotene.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
84.Identify the correct statements:
A. Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
B. Recombination nodules are the sites of crossing over.
C. Recombinase is involved in crossing over.
D. Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of diplotene.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
85.Identify the correct statements:
A. Diplotene begins with dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
B. Recombined homologous chromosomes tend to separate except at crossover sites.
C. Chiasmata are X-shaped structures.
D. Diplotene is always the shortest stage in all vertebrate oocytes.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
86.Identify the correct statements:
A. Diakinesis is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
B. Meiotic spindle is assembled during diakinesis.
C. Nucleolus disappears and nuclear envelope breaks down by the end.
D. Diakinesis represents transition to anaphase I.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
87.Identify the correct statements:
A. Bivalents align at the equatorial plate in metaphase I.
B. Microtubules attach to kinetochores of homologous chromosomes in metaphase I.
C. Homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase I.
D. Sister chromatids separate in anaphase I as in anaphase II.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
88.Identify the correct statements:
A. Telophase I involves reappearance of nuclear membrane and nucleolus.
B. Cytokinesis after telophase I forms a dyad.
C. DNA replication occurs during interkinesis.
D. Prophase II follows interkinesis and is simpler than prophase I.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and C only
(2)A, B and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
89.Identify the correct statements:
A. Meiosis II resembles normal mitosis.
B. By the end of prophase II, nuclear membrane disappears.
C. In metaphase II, kinetochores of sister chromatids attach to microtubules from opposite poles.
D. In metaphase II, bivalent chromosomes align as homologous pairs.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
90.Identify the correct statements:
A. Anaphase II starts with simultaneous centromere splitting.
B. Sister chromatids move toward opposite poles.
C. Telophase II is followed by cytokinesis forming a tetrad of haploid cells.
D. Telophase II produces a dyad of diploid cells.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
91.Identify the correct statements:
A. Meiosis helps conserve chromosome number across generations.
B. Meiosis increases genetic variability.
C. Variations are important for evolution.
D. Meiosis prevents fertilisation from restoring chromosome number.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
92.Identify the correct statements:
A. According to cell theory, cells arise from pre-existing cells.
B. Sexual organisms start life from a single-celled zygote.
C. Cell division stops permanently after a mature organism forms.
D. Cell division continues through the life cycle.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and C only
(2)A, B and D only
(3)B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
93.Identify the correct statements:
A. Mitosis conserves chromosome number in daughter cells.
B. In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair to form bivalents.
C. In anaphase I, homologues move to opposite poles with both chromatids.
D. In anaphase II, sister chromatids separate.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and B only
(2)C and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
94.Identify the correct statements:
A. End prophase lacks visible Golgi complexes, ER, nucleolus and nuclear envelope.
B. Metaphase allows easiest study of chromosome morphology.
C. Anaphase includes chromatid movement to opposite poles.
D. Telophase includes reformation of nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and C only
(2)B and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
95.Identify the correct statements:
A. In S phase, DNA content doubles.
B. In S phase, chromosome number remains the same.
C. Mitosis is equational with respect to chromosome number.
D. Meiosis halves chromosome number.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A and B only
(2)C and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
96.Identify the correct statements:
A. Leptotene — gradual visibility of chromosomes.
B. Zygotene — synapsis.
C. Pachytene — recombination nodules.
D. Diplotene — terminalisation of chiasmata.
E. Diakinesis — dissolution of synaptonemal complex.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and E only
(3)B, D and E only
(4)A, B, C, D and E
97.Identify the correct statements:
A. Cytokinesis is cytoplasmic division.
B. Animal cells use a plasma-membrane furrow.
C. Plant-cell wall formation starts at the periphery and grows inward.
D. Cell plate represents the middle lamella.
E. Coconut liquid endosperm can be syncytial.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, B, D and E only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, C, D and E only
98.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Interphase
B. M phase
C. G1
D. S phase

List-II

I. Actual cell division/mitosis

II. Between two successive M phases

III. DNA synthesis/replication

IV. Interval between mitosis and DNA replication

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
99.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Human cultured cell cycle
B. Yeast cell cycle
C. Cell division proper in 24-h human cycle
D. DNA content after S if initial is 2C

List-II

I. About 90 minutes

II. About one hour

III. About 24 hours

IV. 4C

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
100.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. Animal S phase
D. G2 phase

List-II

I. Protein synthesis for mitosis while growth continues

II. Metabolically active growth without DNA replication

III. DNA synthesis/replication

IV. Centriole duplicates in cytoplasm

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4)A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
101.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

List-II

I. Centromeres split and chromatids separate

II. Chromosomal condensation begins

III. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform

IV. Chromosome morphology easiest to study

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
102.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Centromere
B. Asters
C. Mitotic apparatus
D. End prophase absence

List-II

I. Two asters with spindle fibres

II. Attachment point holding sister chromatids

III. Microtubules radiating from centrosome

IV. Golgi complex, ER, nucleolus, nuclear envelope

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3)A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4)A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
103.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Metaphase chromosome
B. Kinetochore
C. Function of kinetochore
D. Metaphase plate

List-II

I. Spindle-fibre attachment site

II. Two sister chromatids held by centromere

III. Plane of chromosome alignment

IV. Small disc-shaped structure at centromere surface

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
104.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Animal cytokinesis
B. Plant cytokinesis
C. Cell plate
D. Syncytium

List-II

I. Middle lamella precursor

II. Wall formation starts at centre and grows outward

III. Furrow in plasma membrane

IV. Multinucleate condition after karyokinesis without cytokinesis

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
105.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Multicellular growth
B. Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
C. Replacement cells
D. Continuous plant growth

List-II

I. Upper epidermis, gut lining, blood cells

II. Apical and lateral cambium

III. Due to mitosis

IV. Restored by cell division

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2)A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
106.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Reduction division
B. Fertilisation
C. Meiosis I and II
D. End of meiosis II

List-II

I. Restores diploid phase

II. Two sequential divisions with one DNA replication

III. Chromosome number reduced by half

IV. Four haploid cells

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
107.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diplotene

List-II

I. Synapsis begins

II. Recombination nodules appear

III. Synaptonemal complex dissolves

IV. Chromosomes gradually visible

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2)A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
108.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Synaptonemal complex
B. Bivalent/tetrad
C. Recombination nodule
D. Chiasmata

List-II

I. X-shaped crossover structures

II. Complex associated with synapsis

III. Pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes

IV. Site where crossing over occurs

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2)A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4)A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
109.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Crossing over
B. Recombinase
C. End of pachytene
D. Non-sister chromatids

List-II

I. Recombination completed

II. Exchange of genetic material

III. Chromatids involved in crossing over

IV. Enzyme involved

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
110.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Diplotene
B. Chiasmata
C. Diakinesis
D. End of diakinesis

List-II

I. Nucleolus disappears and nuclear envelope breaks down

II. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

III. Terminalisation of chiasmata

IV. X-shaped structures

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3)A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4)A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
111.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Metaphase I
B. Anaphase I
C. Telophase I
D. Dyad

List-II

I. Homologous chromosomes separate

II. Bivalents align at equatorial plate

III. Cells formed after cytokinesis of telophase I

IV. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2)A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
112.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Prophase II
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase II
D. Telophase II

List-II

I. Centromeres split and sister chromatids move apart

II. Nuclear membrane disappears and chromosomes compact

III. Chromosomes align at equator; microtubules attach to sister-chromatid kinetochores

IV. Tetrad of four haploid cells forms after cytokinesis

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3)A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4)A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
113.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Chromosome number conservation
B. Genetic variability
C. Variation
D. Reduction by half

List-II

I. Important for evolution

II. Achieved across generations by meiosis/fertilisation cycle

III. Increased by meiosis

IV. Paradoxical immediate result of meiosis

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3)A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4)A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
114.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis I
C. Anaphase I
D. Anaphase II

List-II

I. Sister chromatids separate

II. Chromosome number conserved in daughter cell

III. Homologues move to opposite poles with both chromatids

IV. Bivalents and crossing over

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2)A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4)A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
115.Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Karyokinesis
B. Metaphase plate
C. Cytokinesis
D. Interkinesis

List-II

I. Stage between the two meiotic divisions

II. Cytoplasmic division

III. Nuclear division

IV. Plane of chromosome alignment

Choose the correct answer.
(1)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
116.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: After S phase, a diploid cell that was 2n at G1 remains 2n.
Reason R: During S phase, DNA content doubles but chromosome number does not increase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
117.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: G0 cells are metabolically active.
Reason R: G0 cells no longer proliferate unless called on depending on organismal requirement.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
118.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Mitosis is called equational division.
Reason R: The chromosome number of parent and progeny/daughter cells is conserved.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
119.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: During prophase, centrosomes begin to move toward opposite poles.
Reason R: Centrosome duplication occurs during S phase of interphase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
120.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Metaphase is useful for studying chromosome morphology.
Reason R: By metaphase, chromosome condensation is completed and chromosomes are clearly observable.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
121.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Spindle fibres attach to chromosomes at kinetochores during metaphase.
Reason R: Kinetochores are small disc-shaped structures located at the surface of centromeres.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
122.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Chromatids move to opposite poles during mitotic anaphase.
Reason R: Centromeres split and chromatids separate at the onset of anaphase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
123.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Nuclear envelope develops around chromosome clusters at each pole during telophase.
Reason R: In telophase, chromosomes decondense and lose their individuality.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
124.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Plant cells undergo cytokinesis by a mechanism different from animal cells.
Reason R: Plant cells are enclosed by a relatively inextensible cell wall.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
125.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Syncytium can form when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis.
Reason R: Cytokinesis is the separation of cytoplasm that completes cell division.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
126.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Meiosis is called reduction division.
Reason R: It reduces chromosome number by half while forming gametes/haploid cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
127.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process.
Reason R: Recombinase is the enzyme involved in crossing over.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
128.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Chiasmata are visible X-shaped structures in diplotene.
Reason R: The synaptonemal complex dissolves and homologues tend to separate except at crossover sites.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
129.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Interkinesis is followed by prophase II.
Reason R: DNA replication occurs during interkinesis to prepare chromosomes for meiosis II.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
130.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Meiosis increases genetic variability in the population.
Reason R: Meiosis involves recombination between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3)A is true but R is false
(4)A is false but R is true
131.Based on a cell-cycle diagram showing G1 → S → G2 → M, which label-event pairing is correct?
(1)G1 — DNA content doubles from 2C to 4C
(2)S — DNA replication occurs while chromosome number remains same
(3)G2 — cytokinesis completes cell division
(4)M — quiescent stage with no proliferation
132.In a diagram of mitosis, a chromosome is shown as two sister chromatids joined at a centromere with small discs on the centromere. Which option correctly labels these discs and the stage where the chromosome alignment plane is named?
(1)Discs: chiasmata; stage: diplotene
(2)Discs: kinetochores; stage: metaphase
(3)Discs: asters; stage: prophase
(4)Discs: cell plates; stage: cytokinesis
133.A student observes four mitotic cells. Cell P lacks visible nucleolus/nuclear envelope; Cell Q has fully condensed chromosomes aligned at an equatorial plane; Cell R has centromeres split; Cell S shows reformed ER/Golgi/nucleolus. Correct stage order is:
(1)P-Prophase, Q-Metaphase, R-Anaphase, S-Telophase
(2)P-Metaphase, Q-Prophase, R-Telophase, S-Anaphase
(3)P-Prophase, Q-Anaphase, R-Metaphase, S-Telophase
(4)P-Telophase, Q-Metaphase, R-Anaphase, S-Prophase
134.In an anaphase diagram, the leading edge of each moving daughter chromosome is the:
(1)Chromosome arm trailing behind
(2)Centromere directed toward the pole
(3)Nucleolus forming around chromatin
(4)Cell plate growing outward
135.A diagram shows cytokinesis beginning at the centre of a plant cell and expanding outward to meet lateral walls. The structure first formed represents:
(1)Cleavage furrow of plasma membrane
(2)Cell plate representing the middle lamella
(3)Kinetochore of sister chromatids
(4)Synaptonemal complex
136.A diagram shows a furrow appearing in the plasma membrane and deepening until it joins at the centre. This represents:
(1)Animal-cell cytokinesis
(2)Plant-cell cytokinesis
(3)Metaphase plate formation
(4)Terminalisation of chiasmata
137.The correct order of processes in prophase I is:
(1)Synapsis → chromosomes visible → recombination nodules → synaptonemal complex dissolution → terminalisation
(2)Chromosomes visible → synapsis → recombination nodules/crossing over → synaptonemal complex dissolution/chiasmata → terminalisation
(3)Terminalisation → synapsis → recombination nodules → chromosomes visible → chiasmata
(4)Recombination nodules → terminalisation → synapsis → chromosomes visible → diplotene
138.Based on a meiosis I diagram, which observation identifies anaphase I rather than mitotic anaphase?
(1)Centromeres split and sister chromatids separate
(2)Homologous chromosomes separate while sister chromatids remain associated
(3)Chromosomes align singly at the equator
(4)Nuclear envelope develops around chromosome clusters
139.Which diagram-based inference correctly distinguishes anaphase I from anaphase II?
(1)Anaphase I: sister chromatids separate; Anaphase II: homologues separate
(2)Anaphase I: homologues separate with sister chromatids together; Anaphase II: centromeres split and sister chromatids separate
(3)Both stages show bivalents aligned at equator
(4)Both stages occur before any DNA replication
140.In a meiosis II sequence diagram, the step immediately responsible for sister chromatids moving to opposite poles is:
(1)Formation of synaptonemal complex
(2)Simultaneous splitting of centromeres and shortening of kinetochore microtubules
(3)Terminalisation of chiasmata
(4)Cell plate representing middle lamella
141.A diagram shows one diploid meiocyte completing meiosis and forming four haploid cells. Which statement correctly interprets this outcome?
(1)It proves mitosis is reductional
(2)It shows meiosis II ending in a tetrad of haploid daughter cells
(3)It indicates DNA replication occurred during interkinesis
(4)It shows fertilisation has restored diploidy
142.A life-cycle diagram begins from a single-celled zygote and shows repeated cell divisions through development and adult life. Which statement is correct?
(1)Cell division stops once the organism becomes mature
(2)Sexual organisms begin from a single-celled zygote and cell division continues throughout life cycle
(3)Only gametes divide mitotically in adult organisms
(4)Cells arise without pre-existing cells during development
143.In a diploid cell, DNA content is 2C at G1. Select the option with only correct conclusions.
A. After S phase, DNA content is 4C.
B. After S phase, chromosome number becomes 4n.
C. Mitosis conserves chromosome number.
D. Meiosis ends in four haploid cells.
(1)A, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
144.Select the option with correctly matched mitotic events only.
A. End prophase — Golgi complex, ER, nucleolus and nuclear envelope are not seen.
B. Metaphase — chromosome morphology is easiest to study.
C. Anaphase — centromeres split and chromatids separate.
D. Telophase — recombination nodules appear.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
145.Choose the option containing only correct pairs.
A. Animal cytokinesis — furrow in plasma membrane.
B. Plant cytokinesis — wall formation starts in centre and grows outward.
C. Cell plate — represents middle lamella.
D. Syncytium — formed when cytokinesis occurs before karyokinesis.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
146.Select the correct stage-event combinations.
A. Leptotene — chromosomes become gradually visible.
B. Zygotene — synapsis begins.
C. Pachytene — recombination nodules appear.
D. Diplotene — terminalisation of chiasmata.
E. Diakinesis — dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and E only
(3)B, D and E only
(4)A, B, C, D and E
147.Identify the correct separation events.
A. Mitotic anaphase — sister chromatids separate.
B. Anaphase I — homologous chromosomes separate while sister chromatids remain associated.
C. Anaphase II — centromeres split and sister chromatids separate.
D. Metaphase I — centromeres split.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
148.A student says, “Since DNA content doubles in S phase, chromosome number must also double.” Which correction is NCERT-accurate?
(1)Correct; DNA content and chromosome number always increase together
(2)Wrong; during S phase DNA content doubles from 2C to 4C but chromosome number remains the same
(3)Wrong; both DNA content and chromosome number reduce by half during S phase
(4)Correct only in animal cells, not in plant cells
149.A cell division produces four haploid cells and increases genetic variability. Which conclusion is best?
(1)It is mitosis because daughter cells are identical
(2)It is meiosis because it has reduction division, two divisions and genetic variability
(3)It is G0 because cells remain metabolically active
(4)It is cytokinesis because cytoplasm separates first
150.In a hard NEET paper, you see the sequence: synapsis → recombination nodules → synaptonemal complex dissolution → terminalisation → no DNA replication before prophase II. Which option correctly gives the stages/processes?
(1)Leptotene → zygotene → pachytene → diplotene → S phase
(2)Zygotene → pachytene → diplotene → diakinesis → interkinesis
(3)Pachytene → diplotene → diakinesis → metaphase I → G2
(4)Zygotene → diplotene → pachytene → diakinesis → interphase

Answer Key

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61
71
81
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101
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