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NEET ]1[ Contd...
NEET UG Biology Microbes
Instructions:
- Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
- Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
- Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
- Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Which set contains the complete range of microbial forms mentioned in the chapter introduction?
2.Which location is used as evidence that microbes can live where most life forms cannot?
3.Bacteria and many fungi grown on nutritive media form visible:
4.Milk changes into curd mainly because LAB:
5.In curd preparation, the small amount of old curd added to fresh milk acts as:
6.Curd improves nutritional quality partly by increasing:
7.The puffed-up appearance of idli/dosa dough is mainly due to:
8.Baker’s yeast used for bread-making is:
9.Toddy is produced by fermentation of:
10.The large holes of Swiss cheese are due to CO2 released by:
11.Roquefort cheese gets its characteristic flavour by:
12.Industrial-scale microbial production requires large vessels called:
13.Brewer’s yeast is used to ferment malted cereals and fruit juices mainly to produce:
14.Which pair is produced without distillation according to the chapter?
15.Antibiotics are best described as substances that:
16.Penicillin was named after:
17.Who established the full potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotic?
18.Which disease is listed among those whose treatment was improved by antibiotics?
19.Citric acid is produced commercially using:
20.Acetic acid is produced using:
21.Lipases are useful in detergents because they help remove:
22.Streptokinase is used clinically as a:
23.Cyclosporin A used in organ transplantation is produced by:
24.Statins lower blood cholesterol mainly by:
25.Municipal wastewater containing human excreta and organic matter is called:
26.Primary sewage treatment mainly involves:
27.Higher BOD of wastewater indicates:
28.Methanogens such as Methanobacterium are commonly found in:
29.Correct agent-target pair is:
30.Many members of which genus form mycorrhiza and help plants obtain phosphorus?
31.Consider the statements:
I. Microbes occur inside plants and animals.
II. Microbes are absent from highly acidic environments.
III. Bacteria and many fungi can form visible colonies on nutritive media.
Which statements are correct?
I. Microbes occur inside plants and animals.
II. Microbes are absent from highly acidic environments.
III. Bacteria and many fungi can form visible colonies on nutritive media.
Which statements are correct?
32.Which statements correctly represent the chapter’s view of microbes?
I. Viruses and viroids are included among microbial forms.
II. Prions are proteinaceous infectious agents.
III. Only bacteria and fungi are considered microbes.
I. Viruses and viroids are included among microbial forms.
II. Prions are proteinaceous infectious agents.
III. Only bacteria and fungi are considered microbes.
33.Read the statements about LAB:
I. They include Lactobacillus and related bacteria.
II. They coagulate milk proteins by acid production.
III. They decrease vitamin B12 in curd.
IV. They help check disease-causing microbes in the stomach.
Correct statements are:
I. They include Lactobacillus and related bacteria.
II. They coagulate milk proteins by acid production.
III. They decrease vitamin B12 in curd.
IV. They help check disease-causing microbes in the stomach.
Correct statements are:
34.Which statements are correct?
I. Idli/dosa dough is fermented by bacteria.
II. Bread dough uses Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
III. Toddy is made by distilling fermented broth.
IV. Fish, soybean and bamboo shoots can be fermented by microbes.
I. Idli/dosa dough is fermented by bacteria.
II. Bread dough uses Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
III. Toddy is made by distilling fermented broth.
IV. Fish, soybean and bamboo shoots can be fermented by microbes.
35.Regarding cheese:
I. Microbes influence texture, flavour and taste.
II. Swiss cheese holes are caused by CO2 from Propionibacterium sharmanii.
III. Roquefort cheese is ripened by specific fungi.
IV. Cheese preparation is unrelated to microbes.
Correct statements are:
I. Microbes influence texture, flavour and taste.
II. Swiss cheese holes are caused by CO2 from Propionibacterium sharmanii.
III. Roquefort cheese is ripened by specific fungi.
IV. Cheese preparation is unrelated to microbes.
Correct statements are:
36.Consider alcoholic beverages:
I. Brewer’s yeast is Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
II. Whisky, brandy and rum are made by distillation of fermented broth.
III. Wine and beer are produced without distillation.
IV. The drink obtained depends only on the microbe, not raw material or processing.
Correct statements are:
I. Brewer’s yeast is Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
II. Whisky, brandy and rum are made by distillation of fermented broth.
III. Wine and beer are produced without distillation.
IV. The drink obtained depends only on the microbe, not raw material or processing.
Correct statements are:
37.Which statements about antibiotics are correct?
I. They are microbial substances.
II. They can kill or retard disease-causing microbes.
III. In human welfare context, they are considered pro-life.
IV. They are called antibiotics because they are useful only against plants.
I. They are microbial substances.
II. They can kill or retard disease-causing microbes.
III. In human welfare context, they are considered pro-life.
IV. They are called antibiotics because they are useful only against plants.
38.Penicillin-related statements:
I. It was a chance discovery.
II. Fleming was working on Staphylococci.
III. Penicillin was named after Penicillium notatum.
IV. Chain and Florey discovered the original mould on Fleming’s plate.
Correct statements are:
I. It was a chance discovery.
II. Fleming was working on Staphylococci.
III. Penicillin was named after Penicillium notatum.
IV. Chain and Florey discovered the original mould on Fleming’s plate.
Correct statements are:
39.Which statements are correct?
I. Chain and Florey helped establish penicillin as an effective antibiotic.
II. Penicillin was used for wounded American soldiers in World War II.
III. Fleming, Chain and Florey received the Nobel Prize in 1945.
IV. The Nobel Prize was awarded to IARI and KVIC for penicillin.
I. Chain and Florey helped establish penicillin as an effective antibiotic.
II. Penicillin was used for wounded American soldiers in World War II.
III. Fleming, Chain and Florey received the Nobel Prize in 1945.
IV. The Nobel Prize was awarded to IARI and KVIC for penicillin.
40.Select the correct producer-product statements:
I. Aspergillus niger—citric acid
II. Acetobacter aceti—acetic acid
III. Clostridium butylicum—butyric acid
IV. Lactobacillus—lactic acid
I. Aspergillus niger—citric acid
II. Acetobacter aceti—acetic acid
III. Clostridium butylicum—butyric acid
IV. Lactobacillus—lactic acid
41.Which statements are correct?
I. Lipases help remove oily stains in detergents.
II. Pectinases and proteases clarify bottled fruit juices.
III. Streptokinase removes clots from blood vessels after myocardial infarction.
IV. Streptokinase is produced by Rhizobium.
I. Lipases help remove oily stains in detergents.
II. Pectinases and proteases clarify bottled fruit juices.
III. Streptokinase removes clots from blood vessels after myocardial infarction.
IV. Streptokinase is produced by Rhizobium.
42.Consider bioactive molecules:
I. Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressant.
II. Trichoderma polysporum produces cyclosporin A.
III. Monascus purpureus produces statins.
IV. Statins act by competitively inhibiting cholesterol synthesis enzyme.
Correct statements are:
I. Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressant.
II. Trichoderma polysporum produces cyclosporin A.
III. Monascus purpureus produces statins.
IV. Statins act by competitively inhibiting cholesterol synthesis enzyme.
Correct statements are:
43.About sewage:
I. It is municipal wastewater containing human excreta.
II. It contains organic matter and pathogenic microbes.
III. It can be discharged directly into rivers without treatment.
IV. Treatment uses heterotrophic microbes naturally present in sewage.
I. It is municipal wastewater containing human excreta.
II. It contains organic matter and pathogenic microbes.
III. It can be discharged directly into rivers without treatment.
IV. Treatment uses heterotrophic microbes naturally present in sewage.
44.Primary treatment includes:
I. Removal of floating debris by sequential filtration.
II. Removal of grit by sedimentation.
III. Formation of primary sludge from settled solids.
IV. Pumping air to produce flocs.
I. Removal of floating debris by sequential filtration.
II. Removal of grit by sedimentation.
III. Formation of primary sludge from settled solids.
IV. Pumping air to produce flocs.
45.Secondary treatment statements:
I. Primary effluent enters aeration tanks.
II. Mechanical agitation and air pumping allow aerobic microbial growth.
III. Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
IV. Flocs increase BOD by adding organic matter.
I. Primary effluent enters aeration tanks.
II. Mechanical agitation and air pumping allow aerobic microbial growth.
III. Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
IV. Flocs increase BOD by adding organic matter.
46.Choose correct statements about BOD:
I. It reflects oxygen demand due to microbial oxidation of organic matter.
II. It indirectly measures organic matter in water.
III. Higher BOD means lower polluting potential.
IV. BOD falls during effective secondary treatment.
I. It reflects oxygen demand due to microbial oxidation of organic matter.
II. It indirectly measures organic matter in water.
III. Higher BOD means lower polluting potential.
IV. BOD falls during effective secondary treatment.
47.Activated sludge process:
I. Flocs sediment after BOD reduction.
II. The sediment is called activated sludge.
III. A small part returns as inoculum.
IV. Most sludge goes to anaerobic digesters where gases like methane are produced.
I. Flocs sediment after BOD reduction.
II. The sediment is called activated sludge.
III. A small part returns as inoculum.
IV. Most sludge goes to anaerobic digesters where gases like methane are produced.
48.Which gases are produced during anaerobic sludge digestion according to the chapter?
I. Methane
II. Hydrogen sulphide
III. Carbon dioxide
IV. Oxygen
I. Methane
II. Hydrogen sulphide
III. Carbon dioxide
IV. Oxygen
49.Which statements are correct?
I. Untreated sewage discharge can increase water-borne diseases.
II. Urbanisation has increased sewage production.
III. STP numbers have not always kept pace with sewage quantity.
IV. Ganga and Yamuna action plans propose more STPs.
I. Untreated sewage discharge can increase water-borne diseases.
II. Urbanisation has increased sewage production.
III. STP numbers have not always kept pace with sewage quantity.
IV. Ganga and Yamuna action plans propose more STPs.
50.Biogas-related statements:
I. It is a gas mixture containing predominantly methane.
II. It is produced by microbial activity.
III. Methanogens grow anaerobically on cellulosic material.
IV. Methanogens mainly produce penicillin.
I. It is a gas mixture containing predominantly methane.
II. It is produced by microbial activity.
III. Methanogens grow anaerobically on cellulosic material.
IV. Methanogens mainly produce penicillin.
51.Which statements are correct?
I. Methanobacterium is a common methanogen.
II. Methanogens occur in cattle rumen.
III. They help breakdown cellulose in rumen.
IV. Human beings digest cellulose efficiently using their own cellulase enzyme as stated in the chapter.
I. Methanobacterium is a common methanogen.
II. Methanogens occur in cattle rumen.
III. They help breakdown cellulose in rumen.
IV. Human beings digest cellulose efficiently using their own cellulase enzyme as stated in the chapter.
52.Biogas plant statements:
I. Dung slurry is fed into a concrete tank.
II. Floating cover rises as gas forms.
III. Spent slurry can be used as fertiliser.
IV. Biogas technology in India is associated mainly with IARI and KVIC.
I. Dung slurry is fed into a concrete tank.
II. Floating cover rises as gas forms.
III. Spent slurry can be used as fertiliser.
IV. Biogas technology in India is associated mainly with IARI and KVIC.
53.Organic/biocontrol approach:
I. It relies on biological methods to control pests and diseases.
II. It aims to eradicate every pest species completely.
III. It reduces dependence on toxic chemicals.
IV. It recognises interactions among field organisms.
I. It relies on biological methods to control pests and diseases.
II. It aims to eradicate every pest species completely.
III. It reduces dependence on toxic chemicals.
IV. It recognises interactions among field organisms.
54.Which statements reflect the organic farmer’s view?
I. Biodiversity furthers health.
II. More variety makes a landscape more sustainable.
III. Pests should be managed through checks and balances.
IV. Beneficial predators can survive even if all pest/host organisms are removed.
I. Biodiversity furthers health.
II. More variety makes a landscape more sustainable.
III. Pests should be managed through checks and balances.
IV. Beneficial predators can survive even if all pest/host organisms are removed.
55.Correct statements:
I. Ladybird helps control aphids.
II. Dragonflies help control mosquitoes.
III. Bt toxin kills larvae after release in the larval gut.
IV. Bt cotton is an example of a plant with Bt toxin gene.
I. Ladybird helps control aphids.
II. Dragonflies help control mosquitoes.
III. Bt toxin kills larvae after release in the larval gut.
IV. Bt cotton is an example of a plant with Bt toxin gene.
56.About Bacillus thuringiensis:
I. It is used against butterfly caterpillars.
II. Dried spores can be sprayed on vulnerable plants.
III. The toxin is released in the larval gut.
IV. It necessarily kills all insects in the field.
I. It is used against butterfly caterpillars.
II. Dried spores can be sprayed on vulnerable plants.
III. The toxin is released in the larval gut.
IV. It necessarily kills all insects in the field.
57.Which statements are correct?
I. Trichoderma species are free-living fungi common in root ecosystems.
II. Baculoviruses attack insects and arthropods.
III. Most biocontrol baculoviruses belong to Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
IV. NPVs are broad-spectrum toxins against mammals and birds.
I. Trichoderma species are free-living fungi common in root ecosystems.
II. Baculoviruses attack insects and arthropods.
III. Most biocontrol baculoviruses belong to Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
IV. NPVs are broad-spectrum toxins against mammals and birds.
58.Biofertiliser statements:
I. They are organisms enriching soil nutrient quality.
II. Main sources include bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria.
III. They are promoted to reduce dependence on chemical fertilisers.
IV. They are the same as synthetic pesticides.
I. They are organisms enriching soil nutrient quality.
II. Main sources include bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria.
III. They are promoted to reduce dependence on chemical fertilisers.
IV. They are the same as synthetic pesticides.
59.Which statements are correct?
I. Rhizobium is symbiotic in legume root nodules.
II. Azospirillum and Azotobacter can fix nitrogen freely in soil.
III. Rhizobium fixes atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms.
IV. All three are described as fungi in the chapter.
I. Rhizobium is symbiotic in legume root nodules.
II. Azospirillum and Azotobacter can fix nitrogen freely in soil.
III. Rhizobium fixes atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms.
IV. All three are described as fungi in the chapter.
60.About mycorrhiza:
I. It is a symbiotic association between fungi and plants.
II. Glomus can form mycorrhiza.
III. The fungal partner absorbs phosphorus for the plant.
IV. Mycorrhiza reduces plant growth by blocking minerals.
I. It is a symbiotic association between fungi and plants.
II. Glomus can form mycorrhiza.
III. The fungal partner absorbs phosphorus for the plant.
IV. Mycorrhiza reduces plant growth by blocking minerals.
61.Choose correct statements:
I. Cyanobacteria are autotrophic microbes.
II. Many cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen.
III. Anabaena, Nostoc and Oscillatoria are examples.
IV. Cyanobacteria are important biofertilisers in paddy fields.
I. Cyanobacteria are autotrophic microbes.
II. Many cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen.
III. Anabaena, Nostoc and Oscillatoria are examples.
IV. Cyanobacteria are important biofertilisers in paddy fields.
62.Which statements are correct?
I. Blue-green algae add organic matter to soil.
II. Biofertilisers help reduce chemical fertiliser dependence.
III. Commercial biofertilisers are available in the market.
IV. Biofertilisers are used only in laboratories and never in fields.
I. Blue-green algae add organic matter to soil.
II. Biofertilisers help reduce chemical fertiliser dependence.
III. Commercial biofertilisers are available in the market.
IV. Biofertilisers are used only in laboratories and never in fields.
63.Which pairs are correctly matched?
I. Aspergillus niger—citric acid
II. Streptococcus—streptokinase
III. Monascus purpureus—statins
IV. Trichoderma polysporum—cyclosporin A
I. Aspergillus niger—citric acid
II. Streptococcus—streptokinase
III. Monascus purpureus—statins
IV. Trichoderma polysporum—cyclosporin A
64.Arrange the correct conceptual flow in sewage treatment:
I. Primary effluent enters aeration tanks.
II. Flocs grow and reduce BOD.
III. Activated sludge sediments.
IV. A part of sludge returns as inoculum.
I. Primary effluent enters aeration tanks.
II. Flocs grow and reduce BOD.
III. Activated sludge sediments.
IV. A part of sludge returns as inoculum.
65.Which labels/features belong to a typical biogas plant?
I. Concrete tank
II. Dung slurry
III. Floating cover
IV. Outlet for spent slurry
I. Concrete tank
II. Dung slurry
III. Floating cover
IV. Outlet for spent slurry
66.Why are NPVs desirable in IPM?
I. They are species-specific.
II. They are narrow-spectrum.
III. They avoid negative impact on several non-target groups.
IV. They are broad chemical poisons.
I. They are species-specific.
II. They are narrow-spectrum.
III. They avoid negative impact on several non-target groups.
IV. They are broad chemical poisons.
67.Which statements are correct?
I. LAB are involved in curd formation.
II. Propionibacterium sharmanii is linked with Swiss cheese.
III. A specific fungus ripens Roquefort cheese.
IV. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is responsible for Swiss cheese holes.
I. LAB are involved in curd formation.
II. Propionibacterium sharmanii is linked with Swiss cheese.
III. A specific fungus ripens Roquefort cheese.
IV. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is responsible for Swiss cheese holes.
68.Identify correct use of Saccharomyces cerevisiae:
I. Baker’s yeast for bread.
II. Brewer’s yeast for beverages.
III. Commercial ethanol production.
IV. Citric acid production in the chapter.
I. Baker’s yeast for bread.
II. Brewer’s yeast for beverages.
III. Commercial ethanol production.
IV. Citric acid production in the chapter.
69.Which statements are correct?
I. Primary treatment is largely physical.
II. Secondary treatment is biological.
III. Activated sludge forms during secondary treatment.
IV. Grit removal occurs by sedimentation during primary treatment.
I. Primary treatment is largely physical.
II. Secondary treatment is biological.
III. Activated sludge forms during secondary treatment.
IV. Grit removal occurs by sedimentation during primary treatment.
70.Which organisms/groups are directly mentioned as biofertiliser sources or examples?
I. Rhizobium
II. Glomus
III. Anabaena
IV. Azotobacter
I. Rhizobium
II. Glomus
III. Anabaena
IV. Azotobacter
71.Which statement is incorrect?
72.Select the incorrect statement about curd formation.
73.Which is NOT correctly matched?
74.Which statement is incorrect?
75.Which statement is incorrect regarding industrial microbial products?
76.Choose the incorrect pair.
77.Which statement is incorrect about antibiotics/penicillin?
78.Which is NOT correct?
79.Find the incorrectly matched producer-product pair.
80.Which statement is incorrect?
81.Which statement is incorrect?
82.Which event is NOT part of primary sewage treatment?
83.Which statement about BOD is incorrect?
84.Which is NOT correct for activated sludge?
85.Which statement is incorrect?
86.Which is NOT a correct feature/use of a typical biogas plant?
87.Which statement is incorrect about biocontrol?
88.Which pair is incorrectly matched?
89.Select the incorrect statement about Bt.
90.Which statement is NOT correct about baculoviruses/NPVs?
91.Which is incorrect?
92.Which pair is incorrectly matched?
93.Which statement is incorrect?
94.Match Column I with Column II:
Column I: 1. Swiss cheese 2. Roquefort cheese 3. Bread dough 4. Toddy
Column II: a. Saccharomyces cerevisiae b. Fermented palm sap c. Propionibacterium sharmanii d. Specific fungus
Column I: 1. Swiss cheese 2. Roquefort cheese 3. Bread dough 4. Toddy
Column II: a. Saccharomyces cerevisiae b. Fermented palm sap c. Propionibacterium sharmanii d. Specific fungus
95.Match producer with product:
1. Aspergillus niger 2. Acetobacter aceti 3. Clostridium butylicum 4. Lactobacillus
a. Lactic acid b. Acetic acid c. Citric acid d. Butyric acid
1. Aspergillus niger 2. Acetobacter aceti 3. Clostridium butylicum 4. Lactobacillus
a. Lactic acid b. Acetic acid c. Citric acid d. Butyric acid
96.Match item with correct use/source:
1. Streptokinase 2. Cyclosporin A 3. Statins 4. Monascus purpureus
a. Cholesterol-lowering agents b. Clot buster c. Produces statins d. Immunosuppressant
1. Streptokinase 2. Cyclosporin A 3. Statins 4. Monascus purpureus
a. Cholesterol-lowering agents b. Clot buster c. Produces statins d. Immunosuppressant
97.Match event/person:
1. Fleming 2. Penicillium notatum 3. Chain and Florey 4. 1945 Nobel Prize
a. Established full potential b. Mould source/name link c. Chance discovery while on Staphylococci d. Fleming, Chain, Florey
1. Fleming 2. Penicillium notatum 3. Chain and Florey 4. 1945 Nobel Prize
a. Established full potential b. Mould source/name link c. Chance discovery while on Staphylococci d. Fleming, Chain, Florey
98.Match process/product:
1. Sequential filtration 2. Sedimentation of grit 3. Settled solids 4. Supernatant
a. Primary sludge b. Effluent c. Removes floating debris d. Removes soil and pebbles
1. Sequential filtration 2. Sedimentation of grit 3. Settled solids 4. Supernatant
a. Primary sludge b. Effluent c. Removes floating debris d. Removes soil and pebbles
99.Match term with description:
1. Flocs 2. BOD 3. Activated sludge 4. Anaerobic digesters
a. Sedimented flocs b. Oxygen demand measure c. Bacteria with fungal filaments d. Tanks digesting sludge anaerobically
1. Flocs 2. BOD 3. Activated sludge 4. Anaerobic digesters
a. Sedimented flocs b. Oxygen demand measure c. Bacteria with fungal filaments d. Tanks digesting sludge anaerobically
100.Match item:
1. Methanobacterium 2. Cattle rumen 3. Gobar 4. Biogas
a. Rich in methanogens b. Methane-rich fuel gas c. Common methanogen d. Cellulose breakdown site
1. Methanobacterium 2. Cattle rumen 3. Gobar 4. Biogas
a. Rich in methanogens b. Methane-rich fuel gas c. Common methanogen d. Cellulose breakdown site
101.Match biogas plant part/function:
1. Concrete tank 2. Floating cover 3. Gas outlet 4. Spent slurry outlet
a. Rises with gas b. Supplies gas to houses c. Holds slurry d. Fertiliser recovery
1. Concrete tank 2. Floating cover 3. Gas outlet 4. Spent slurry outlet
a. Rises with gas b. Supplies gas to houses c. Holds slurry d. Fertiliser recovery
102.Match biological agent with target/example:
1. Ladybird 2. Dragonfly 3. Bacillus thuringiensis 4. Bt cotton
a. Mosquitoes b. Aphids c. Pest-resistant crop d. Butterfly caterpillars
1. Ladybird 2. Dragonfly 3. Bacillus thuringiensis 4. Bt cotton
a. Mosquitoes b. Aphids c. Pest-resistant crop d. Butterfly caterpillars
103.Match:
1. Trichoderma 2. Baculoviruses 3. Nucleopolyhedrovirus 4. IPM suitability
a. Genus used for biocontrol baculoviruses b. Free-living fungi in root ecosystems c. Due to species specificity and safety d. Pathogens of insects/arthropods
1. Trichoderma 2. Baculoviruses 3. Nucleopolyhedrovirus 4. IPM suitability
a. Genus used for biocontrol baculoviruses b. Free-living fungi in root ecosystems c. Due to species specificity and safety d. Pathogens of insects/arthropods
104.Match organism with description:
1. Rhizobium 2. Azospirillum 3. Azotobacter 4. Leguminous root nodules
a. Free-living nitrogen fixer b. Free-living nitrogen fixer c. Symbiotic bacterium d. Site of symbiosis
1. Rhizobium 2. Azospirillum 3. Azotobacter 4. Leguminous root nodules
a. Free-living nitrogen fixer b. Free-living nitrogen fixer c. Symbiotic bacterium d. Site of symbiosis
105.Match:
1. Mycorrhiza 2. Glomus 3. Fungal symbiont 4. Mycorrhizal benefit
a. Absorbs phosphorus b. Fungal-plant association c. Resistance/tolerance/growth support d. Forms mycorrhiza
1. Mycorrhiza 2. Glomus 3. Fungal symbiont 4. Mycorrhizal benefit
a. Absorbs phosphorus b. Fungal-plant association c. Resistance/tolerance/growth support d. Forms mycorrhiza
106.Match:
1. Cyanobacteria 2. Anabaena 3. Paddy fields 4. Blue-green algae
a. Important biofertiliser field b. Nitrogen-fixing example c. Add organic matter d. Autotrophic microbes
1. Cyanobacteria 2. Anabaena 3. Paddy fields 4. Blue-green algae
a. Important biofertiliser field b. Nitrogen-fixing example c. Add organic matter d. Autotrophic microbes
107.Match beverage group with processing:
1. Wine 2. Beer 3. Whisky 4. Rum
a. Distilled fermented broth b. Without distillation c. Without distillation d. Distilled fermented broth
1. Wine 2. Beer 3. Whisky 4. Rum
a. Distilled fermented broth b. Without distillation c. Without distillation d. Distilled fermented broth
108.Match microbe with product:
1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae 2. Streptococcus 3. Trichoderma polysporum 4. Monascus purpureus
a. Streptokinase b. Cyclosporin A c. Ethanol d. Statins
1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae 2. Streptococcus 3. Trichoderma polysporum 4. Monascus purpureus
a. Streptokinase b. Cyclosporin A c. Ethanol d. Statins
109.Match issue/action:
1. Urbanisation 2. Untreated sewage in rivers 3. Ganga Action Plan 4. STPs
a. Needed for treated discharge b. More sewage production c. River pollution and water-borne disease d. Save rivers from pollution
1. Urbanisation 2. Untreated sewage in rivers 3. Ganga Action Plan 4. STPs
a. Needed for treated discharge b. More sewage production c. River pollution and water-borne disease d. Save rivers from pollution
110.Match figure-related item:
1. Bacteriophage 2. Adenovirus 3. TMV 4. Petri dish colonies
a. Respiratory infections b. Rod-shaped virus c. Bacterial/fungal growth on media d. Bacterial virus
1. Bacteriophage 2. Adenovirus 3. TMV 4. Petri dish colonies
a. Respiratory infections b. Rod-shaped virus c. Bacterial/fungal growth on media d. Bacterial virus
111.Match microbe/group with role:
1. Bacillus thuringiensis 2. Glomus 3. Nostoc 4. Trichoderma
a. Mycorrhiza b. Nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium c. Plant pathogen biocontrol d. Caterpillar control
1. Bacillus thuringiensis 2. Glomus 3. Nostoc 4. Trichoderma
a. Mycorrhiza b. Nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium c. Plant pathogen biocontrol d. Caterpillar control
112.Assertion (A): Curd can be nutritionally better than milk in one respect mentioned in the chapter.
Reason (R): LAB growth in milk increases vitamin B12 and helps convert milk to curd.
Reason (R): LAB growth in milk increases vitamin B12 and helps convert milk to curd.
113.Assertion (A): Dosa/idli dough appears puffed-up after fermentation.
Reason (R): Fermenting microbes produce carbon dioxide gas.
Reason (R): Fermenting microbes produce carbon dioxide gas.
114.Assertion (A): Wine and beer are grouped differently from whisky, brandy and rum in processing.
Reason (R): Wine and beer are produced without distillation, whereas whisky, brandy and rum involve distillation of fermented broth.
Reason (R): Wine and beer are produced without distillation, whereas whisky, brandy and rum involve distillation of fermented broth.
115.Assertion (A): Fleming named the antibiotic penicillin.
Reason (R): The chemical was produced by a mould later linked with Penicillium notatum.
Reason (R): The chemical was produced by a mould later linked with Penicillium notatum.
116.Assertion (A): Streptokinase is called a clot buster in the chapter.
Reason (R): It helps remove clots from blood vessels after myocardial infarction.
Reason (R): It helps remove clots from blood vessels after myocardial infarction.
117.Assertion (A): Statins lower blood cholesterol.
Reason (R): They competitively inhibit an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis.
Reason (R): They competitively inhibit an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis.
118.Assertion (A): Primary treatment is called a physical step.
Reason (R): It removes particles mainly through filtration and sedimentation.
Reason (R): It removes particles mainly through filtration and sedimentation.
119.Assertion (A): Effective secondary treatment reduces the polluting potential of sewage.
Reason (R): Flocs consume organic matter and lower BOD.
Reason (R): Flocs consume organic matter and lower BOD.
120.Assertion (A): A small part of activated sludge is returned to the aeration tank.
Reason (R): It serves as inoculum for further microbial growth.
Reason (R): It serves as inoculum for further microbial growth.
121.Assertion (A): Cattle dung can be used for generation of biogas.
Reason (R): It is rich in methanogenic bacteria due to the rumen ecosystem.
Reason (R): It is rich in methanogenic bacteria due to the rumen ecosystem.
122.Assertion (A): The floating cover of a biogas plant rises during operation.
Reason (R): Gas produced by microbial activity accumulates under the cover.
Reason (R): Gas produced by microbial activity accumulates under the cover.
123.Assertion (A): Organic farming does not aim to wipe out all pests completely.
Reason (R): Beneficial predators and parasites may depend on pests as food or hosts.
Reason (R): Beneficial predators and parasites may depend on pests as food or hosts.
124.Assertion (A): Bt can control caterpillars while sparing many other insects.
Reason (R): Bt toxin is released in the gut of susceptible larvae after ingestion.
Reason (R): Bt toxin is released in the gut of susceptible larvae after ingestion.
125.Assertion (A): NPVs are useful in IPM programmes.
Reason (R): They are species-specific, narrow-spectrum and safe for several non-target organisms.
Reason (R): They are species-specific, narrow-spectrum and safe for several non-target organisms.
126.Assertion (A): Mycorrhizal plants may show better growth and stress tolerance.
Reason (R): The fungal symbiont improves phosphorus acquisition and can support tolerance/resistance benefits.
Reason (R): The fungal symbiont improves phosphorus acquisition and can support tolerance/resistance benefits.
127.In Figure 8.1-type bacterial forms, a rod-shaped bacterium with flagella should be identified as:
128.A figure showing colonies growing in a petri dish is most directly linked with:
129.Process-flow question: sewage → sequential filtration → sedimentation → settled solids + supernatant. The settled solids and supernatant are respectively:
130.In a secondary-treatment flowchart, which step immediately helps vigorous aerobic floc growth?
131.Three water samples have BOD values: X = 8 mg/L, Y = 20 mg/L, Z = 400 mg/L. Which sample is most polluted?
132.In an activated-sludge flow diagram, the arrow from activated sludge back to aeration tank represents:
133.In a typical biogas plant diagram, the dome/cover rising above slurry indicates:
134.In a biogas plant, which labelled outlet should be connected to a pipe supplying nearby houses?
135.After gas production, the spent slurry shown leaving a biogas plant can be used as:
136.Bt process sequence is best represented as:
137.In a root-fungus association diagram, the fungal partner labelled Glomus is most directly associated with:
138.In a paddy-field biofertiliser chart, the most appropriate group to place under 'important nitrogen-fixing autotrophic microbes' is:
139.Select the option in which all four entries are correctly matched.
140.Choose the option showing the correct treatment order.
141.Which option contains only correct biogas facts?
142.Select the all-correct biocontrol set.
143.Which option is fully correct for biofertilisers?
144.Saccharomyces cerevisiae is correctly linked with which set?
145.Which combination avoids every trap?
146.A laboratory receives two wastewater samples. Sample P has lower BOD than sample Q. Which inference is safest from the chapter?
147.A farmer wants to conserve beneficial insects while controlling pests. Which strategy best matches the chapter?
148.A village has abundant cattle dung and needs cooking fuel. The most chapter-aligned solution is:
149.A crop shows poor phosphorus uptake and stress sensitivity. Which association from the chapter can help?
150.A patient has blood-vessel clots after myocardial infarction. Which microbial product is relevant?
Answer Key
11
23
31
44
53
63
74
82
94
103
113
121
132
143
151
161
174
183
191
204
211
221
231
241
254
261
271
282
294
302
314
322
334
341
351
363
372
382
392
401
411
423
431
441
452
464
474
483
492
501
511
523
534
541
554
563
572
584
594
601
613
621
631
644
651
661
674
683
691
703
713
722
733
741
753
761
771
782
793
802
812
821
834
843
851
862
873
882
893
902
913
921
931
942
951
964
974
981
991
1004
1012
1021
1031
1044
1054
1061
1073
1083
1094
1102
1112
1123
1131
1143
1153
1161
1173
1184
1193
1201
1211
1223
1232
1244
1251
1262
1273
1284
1294
1301
1312
1322
1334
1341
1354
1364
1371
1382
1392
1401
1412
1421
1432
1441
1451
1464
1473
1481
1494
1504