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NEET ]1[ Contd...
NEET Biology Class 12 - Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Ultra-Hard Question Bank
Instructions:
- Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
- Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
- Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
- Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Biology in essence is the story of life on earth.
Reason (R): While individual organisms die without fail, species continue to live through
millions of years unless threatened by natural or anthropogenic extinction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Biology in essence is the story of life on earth.
Reason (R): While individual organisms die without fail, species continue to live through
millions of years unless threatened by natural or anthropogenic extinction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
2.Consider the following statements regarding the early life and academic career of
Panchanan Maheshwari:
I. He was born in November 1904 in Jaipur (Rajasthan).
II. He moved to Allahabad for higher education, where he obtained his D.Sc.
III. He was inspired by Dr W. Dudgeon, an American missionary teacher, to develop an interest
in Botany and especially morphology.
IV. Under his leadership, NCERT published the very first textbooks of Biology for Higher
Secondary Schools in 1964.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
Panchanan Maheshwari:
I. He was born in November 1904 in Jaipur (Rajasthan).
II. He moved to Allahabad for higher education, where he obtained his D.Sc.
III. He was inspired by Dr W. Dudgeon, an American missionary teacher, to develop an interest
in Botany and especially morphology.
IV. Under his leadership, NCERT published the very first textbooks of Biology for Higher
Secondary Schools in 1964.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
3.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Panchanan Maheshwari worked on embryological aspects and popularised the
use of embryological characters in taxonomy.
Reason (R): He established the Department of Botany, University of Delhi as an important
centre of research in embryology and tissue culture.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Panchanan Maheshwari worked on embryological aspects and popularised the
use of embryological characters in taxonomy.
Reason (R): He established the Department of Botany, University of Delhi as an important
centre of research in embryology and tissue culture.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
4.Consider the following statements regarding the honors and research breakthroughs of
Panchanan Maheshwari:
I. His work on test tube fertilisation and intra-ovarian pollination won worldwide acclaim.
II. He was honoured with the fellowship of the Royal Society of London (FRS).
III. He was honoured with the fellowship of the Indian National Science Academy.
IV. He emphasised the need for initiation of work on artificial culture of immature embryos.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
Panchanan Maheshwari:
I. His work on test tube fertilisation and intra-ovarian pollination won worldwide acclaim.
II. He was honoured with the fellowship of the Royal Society of London (FRS).
III. He was honoured with the fellowship of the Indian National Science Academy.
IV. He emphasised the need for initiation of work on artificial culture of immature embryos.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
5.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Flowers do not exist only for us to be used for our own selfishness.
Reason (R): Flowers are objects of aesthetic, ornamental, social, religious and cultural value
representing human feelings.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Flowers do not exist only for us to be used for our own selfishness.
Reason (R): Flowers are objects of aesthetic, ornamental, social, religious and cultural value
representing human feelings.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
6.Consider the following statements regarding the biological role and adaptations of flowers
in angiosperms:
I. All flowering plants show sexual reproduction.
II. The end products of sexual reproduction in angiosperms are fruits and seeds.
III. Human beings have had an intimate relationship with flowers since time immemorial.
IV. To a biologist, flowers are morphological and embryological marvels and the sites of sexual
reproduction.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
in angiosperms:
I. All flowering plants show sexual reproduction.
II. The end products of sexual reproduction in angiosperms are fruits and seeds.
III. Human beings have had an intimate relationship with flowers since time immemorial.
IV. To a biologist, flowers are morphological and embryological marvels and the sites of sexual
reproduction.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
7.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In a plant, the decision that the plant is going to flower has taken place much
before the actual flower is seen on the plant.
Reason (R): Several hormonal and structural changes are initiated which lead to the
differentiation and further development of the floral primordium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In a plant, the decision that the plant is going to flower has taken place much
before the actual flower is seen on the plant.
Reason (R): Several hormonal and structural changes are initiated which lead to the
differentiation and further development of the floral primordium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
8.Consider the following statements regarding the reproductive structures of a flower:
I. Inflorescences are formed which bear the floral buds and then the flowers.
II. In the flower, the male and female reproductive structures differentiate and develop.
III. The androecium consists of a whorl of stamens representing the male reproductive organ.
IV. The gynoecium represents the female reproductive organ.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Inflorescences are formed which bear the floral buds and then the flowers.
II. In the flower, the male and female reproductive structures differentiate and develop.
III. The androecium consists of a whorl of stamens representing the male reproductive organ.
IV. The gynoecium represents the female reproductive organ.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
9.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The proximal end of the stamen's filament is attached to the thalamus or the
petal of the flower.
Reason (R): The terminal structure of a typical stamen is generally a bilobed structure called
the anther.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The proximal end of the stamen's filament is attached to the thalamus or the
petal of the flower.
Reason (R): The terminal structure of a typical stamen is generally a bilobed structure called
the anther.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
10.Consider the following statements regarding the structure of an angiosperm anther:
I. A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed, with each lobe having two theca.
II. Because each lobe contains two theca, the anther is described as dithecous.
III. The anther is a four-sided (tetragonal) structure consisting of four microsporangia located
at the corners.
IV. Two microsporangia are located in each lobe of the anther.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed, with each lobe having two theca.
II. Because each lobe contains two theca, the anther is described as dithecous.
III. The anther is a four-sided (tetragonal) structure consisting of four microsporangia located
at the corners.
IV. Two microsporangia are located in each lobe of the anther.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
11.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The microsporangia of the anther develop further and become pollen sacs.
Reason (R): They extend longitudinally all through the length of an anther and are packed with
pollen grains.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The microsporangia of the anther develop further and become pollen sacs.
Reason (R): They extend longitudinally all through the length of an anther and are packed with
pollen grains.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
12.Consider the following statements regarding the wall layers of a typical microsporangium:
I. In a transverse section, a typical microsporangium appears near circular in outline.
II. It is generally surrounded by four wall layers: epidermis, endothecium, middle layers, and
tapetum.
III. The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of the
anther to release the pollen.
IV. The innermost wall layer is the tapetum, which nourishes the developing pollen grains.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. In a transverse section, a typical microsporangium appears near circular in outline.
II. It is generally surrounded by four wall layers: epidermis, endothecium, middle layers, and
tapetum.
III. The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of the
anther to release the pollen.
IV. The innermost wall layer is the tapetum, which nourishes the developing pollen grains.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
13.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one
nucleus.
Reason (R): Tapetal cells undergo karyokinesis without being followed immediately by
cytokinesis during microsporogenesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one
nucleus.
Reason (R): Tapetal cells undergo karyokinesis without being followed immediately by
cytokinesis during microsporogenesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
14.Consider the following statements regarding sporogenous tissue and microsporogenesis:
I. When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called
sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium.
II. As the anther develops, the cells of the sporogenous tissue undergo meiotic divisions to form
microspore tetrads.
III. Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad, and is a
potential pollen mother cell (PMC).
IV. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through meiosis is called
microsporogenesis.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called
sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium.
II. As the anther develops, the cells of the sporogenous tissue undergo meiotic divisions to form
microspore tetrads.
III. Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad, and is a
potential pollen mother cell (PMC).
IV. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through meiosis is called
microsporogenesis.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
15.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The microspores dissociate from each other and develop into pollen grains.
Reason (R): As the anthers mature and dehydrate, the callose wall separating the microspores is
digested.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The microspores dissociate from each other and develop into pollen grains.
Reason (R): As the anthers mature and dehydrate, the callose wall separating the microspores is
digested.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
16.Consider the following statements regarding the basic dimensions and wall layers of a
pollen grain:
I. Pollen grains are generally spherical in shape.
II. Pollen grains measure about 25-50 micrometers in diameter.
III. The pollen grain has a prominent two-layered wall consisting of an exine and an intine.
IV. The outer wall is the intine and the inner wall is the exine.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
pollen grain:
I. Pollen grains are generally spherical in shape.
II. Pollen grains measure about 25-50 micrometers in diameter.
III. The pollen grain has a prominent two-layered wall consisting of an exine and an intine.
IV. The outer wall is the intine and the inner wall is the exine.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
17.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils.
Reason (R): The exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin, which is one of the most
resistant organic materials known.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils.
Reason (R): The exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin, which is one of the most
resistant organic materials known.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
18.Consider the following statements regarding the germ pores of pollen grains:
I. Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called germ pores.
II. Sporopollenin is completely absent in the region of germ pores.
III. Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids and alkalis.
IV. A few specialized bacterial enzymes have been discovered that can degrade sporopollenin.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called germ pores.
II. Sporopollenin is completely absent in the region of germ pores.
III. Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids and alkalis.
IV. A few specialized bacterial enzymes have been discovered that can degrade sporopollenin.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
19.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The inner wall of the pollen grain is called the intine.
Reason (R): It is a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The inner wall of the pollen grain is called the intine.
Reason (R): It is a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
20.Consider the following statements regarding the cells of a mature pollen grain:
I. When the pollen grain is mature, it contains two cells: a vegetative cell and a generative cell.
II. The vegetative cell is bigger, has abundant food reserve, and a large irregularly shaped
nucleus.
III. The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.
IV. The generative cell is spindle-shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. When the pollen grain is mature, it contains two cells: a vegetative cell and a generative cell.
II. The vegetative cell is bigger, has abundant food reserve, and a large irregularly shaped
nucleus.
III. The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.
IV. The generative cell is spindle-shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
21.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at the 2-celled stage.
Reason (R): In the remaining species, the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the
two male gametes before pollen grains are shed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at the 2-celled stage.
Reason (R): In the remaining species, the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the
two male gametes before pollen grains are shed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
22.Consider the following statements regarding pollen allergies and Parthenium:
I. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people.
II. Pollen allergies often lead to chronic respiratory disorders such as asthma and bronchitis.
III. Parthenium or carrot grass came into India as a contaminant with imported wheat.
IV. Parthenium has become ubiquitous in occurrence and causes pollen allergy.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people.
II. Pollen allergies often lead to chronic respiratory disorders such as asthma and bronchitis.
III. Parthenium or carrot grass came into India as a contaminant with imported wheat.
IV. Parthenium has become ubiquitous in occurrence and causes pollen allergy.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
23.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In western countries, a large number of pollen products in the form of tablets and
syrups are available in the market.
Reason (R): Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and
race horses.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In western countries, a large number of pollen products in the form of tablets and
syrups are available in the market.
Reason (R): Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and
race horses.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
24.Consider the following statements regarding the viability of pollen grains:
I. The period for which pollen grains remain viable is highly variable and depends on
temperature and humidity.
II. In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their
release.
III. In some members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae, and Solanaceae, pollen grains maintain
viability for months.
IV. Pollen grains of all monocotyledons maintain viability for years under natural conditions.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The period for which pollen grains remain viable is highly variable and depends on
temperature and humidity.
II. In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their
release.
III. In some members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae, and Solanaceae, pollen grains maintain
viability for months.
IV. Pollen grains of all monocotyledons maintain viability for years under natural conditions.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
25.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pollen grains of a large number of species can be stored for years in liquid
nitrogen.
Reason (R): Storing pollen grains in liquid nitrogen requires maintaining them at a temperature
of -196°C.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pollen grains of a large number of species can be stored for years in liquid
nitrogen.
Reason (R): Storing pollen grains in liquid nitrogen requires maintaining them at a temperature
of -196°C.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
26.Consider the following statements regarding the gynoecium structure of flowers:
I. The gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of the flower.
II. The gynoecium may consist of a single pistil (monocarpellary) or may have more than one
pistil (multicarpellary).
III. When there are more than one pistil, they may be fused together (syncarpous) or may be
free (apocarpous).
IV. The gynoecium is always monocarpellary in all dicotyledonous families.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of the flower.
II. The gynoecium may consist of a single pistil (monocarpellary) or may have more than one
pistil (multicarpellary).
III. When there are more than one pistil, they may be fused together (syncarpous) or may be
free (apocarpous).
IV. The gynoecium is always monocarpellary in all dicotyledonous families.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
27.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Each pistil has three parts: the stigma, style and ovary.
Reason (R): The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains, style is the elongated
slender part beneath stigma, and the basal bulged part is the ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Each pistil has three parts: the stigma, style and ovary.
Reason (R): The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains, style is the elongated
slender part beneath stigma, and the basal bulged part is the ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
28.Consider the following statements regarding the ovary, placenta, and ovule count:
I. Inside the ovary is the ovarian cavity (locule).
II. The placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity.
III. Arising from the placenta are the megasporangia, commonly called ovules.
IV. The number of ovules in an ovary is always one in all cereals, legumes, and orchids.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Inside the ovary is the ovarian cavity (locule).
II. The placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity.
III. Arising from the placenta are the megasporangia, commonly called ovules.
IV. The number of ovules in an ovary is always one in all cereals, legumes, and orchids.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
29.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The hilum represents the junction between the ovule and the funicle.
Reason (R): The body of the ovule fuses with the funicle in the region called the hilum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The hilum represents the junction between the ovule and the funicle.
Reason (R): The body of the ovule fuses with the funicle in the region called the hilum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
30.Consider the following statements regarding the parts of a typical angiosperm ovule:
I. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called integuments.
II. Integuments encircle the nucellus except at the tip where a small opening called the
micropyle is organised.
III. Opposite the micropylar end is the chalaza, representing the basal part of the ovule.
IV. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells called the nucellus, which has abundant
reserve food materials.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called integuments.
II. Integuments encircle the nucellus except at the tip where a small opening called the
micropyle is organised.
III. Opposite the micropylar end is the chalaza, representing the basal part of the ovule.
IV. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells called the nucellus, which has abundant
reserve food materials.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
31.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Located in the nucellus is the embryo sac or female gametophyte.
Reason (R): Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials which nourish the
developing embryo sac.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Located in the nucellus is the embryo sac or female gametophyte.
Reason (R): Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials which nourish the
developing embryo sac.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
32.Consider the following statements regarding megasporogenesis:
I. The process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell (MMC) is called
megasporogenesis.
II. Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell (MMC) in the micropylar
region of the nucellus.
III. The MMC is a large cell containing dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
IV. The MMC undergoes mitotic division to produce two megaspores.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell (MMC) is called
megasporogenesis.
II. Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell (MMC) in the micropylar
region of the nucellus.
III. The MMC is a large cell containing dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
IV. The MMC undergoes mitotic division to produce two megaspores.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
33.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The megaspore mother cell (MMC) must undergo meiotic division to produce
megaspores.
Reason (R): Meiotic division reduces the chromosome number by half, ensuring that the
resulting female gametophyte is haploid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The megaspore mother cell (MMC) must undergo meiotic division to produce
megaspores.
Reason (R): Meiotic division reduces the chromosome number by half, ensuring that the
resulting female gametophyte is haploid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
34.Consider the following statements regarding the functional megaspore and monosporic
development:
I. In a majority of flowering plants, one of the megaspores is functional while the other three
degenerate.
II. Only the functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte (embryo sac).
III. This method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed monosporic
development.
IV. The functional megaspore is usually the one located at the micropylar end of the tetrad.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
development:
I. In a majority of flowering plants, one of the megaspores is functional while the other three
degenerate.
II. Only the functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte (embryo sac).
III. This method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed monosporic
development.
IV. The functional megaspore is usually the one located at the micropylar end of the tetrad.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
35.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cells of the nucellus and the MMC are diploid, whereas the functional megaspore
and the female gametophyte are haploid.
Reason (R): The MMC differentiates from the nucellus, while the megaspores are formed after
meiotic division of the MMC.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cells of the nucellus and the MMC are diploid, whereas the functional megaspore
and the female gametophyte are haploid.
Reason (R): The MMC differentiates from the nucellus, while the megaspores are formed after
meiotic division of the MMC.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
36.Consider the following statements regarding the mitotic divisions during embryo sac
development:
I. The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to
the opposite poles.
II. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the 4-nucleate and 8-nucleate stages
of the embryo sac.
III. These mitotic divisions are strictly free nuclear; nuclear divisions are not followed
immediately by cell wall formation.
IV. Cell walls are laid down immediately after the 2-nucleate stage is formed.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
development:
I. The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to
the opposite poles.
II. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the 4-nucleate and 8-nucleate stages
of the embryo sac.
III. These mitotic divisions are strictly free nuclear; nuclear divisions are not followed
immediately by cell wall formation.
IV. Cell walls are laid down immediately after the 2-nucleate stage is formed.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
37.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Six of the eight nuclei in a mature embryo sac are surrounded by cell walls and
organised into cells.
Reason (R): The remaining two nuclei, called polar nuclei, are situated below the egg apparatus
in the large central cell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Six of the eight nuclei in a mature embryo sac are surrounded by cell walls and
organised into cells.
Reason (R): The remaining two nuclei, called polar nuclei, are situated below the egg apparatus
in the large central cell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
38.Consider the following statements regarding the egg apparatus and cells at the micropylar
end:
I. Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus.
II. The egg apparatus consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
III. The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called the filiform
apparatus.
IV. The filiform apparatus plays an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
end:
I. Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus.
II. The egg apparatus consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
III. The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called the filiform
apparatus.
IV. The filiform apparatus plays an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
39.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, though 8-nucleate is 7-celled.
Reason (R): Three cells are at the chalazal end called antipodals, three are at the micropylar end
constituting the egg apparatus, and the remaining two polar nuclei are in the large central cell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, though 8-nucleate is 7-celled.
Reason (R): Three cells are at the chalazal end called antipodals, three are at the micropylar end
constituting the egg apparatus, and the remaining two polar nuclei are in the large central cell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
40.Consider the following statements regarding the necessity and mechanism of pollination in
angiosperms:
I. In flowering plants, both male and female gametes are non-motile.
II. Because both gametes are non-motile, they have to be brought together for fertilisation to
occur.
III. Pollination is the mechanism to transfer pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a
pistil.
IV. Angiosperms utilize only biotic (animal) agents to achieve pollination, never abiotic agents.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
angiosperms:
I. In flowering plants, both male and female gametes are non-motile.
II. Because both gametes are non-motile, they have to be brought together for fertilisation to
occur.
III. Pollination is the mechanism to transfer pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a
pistil.
IV. Angiosperms utilize only biotic (animal) agents to achieve pollination, never abiotic agents.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
41.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In a normal flower which opens and exposes the anthers and the stigma, complete
autogamy is rather rare.
Reason (R): Autogamy in open flowers requires synchrony in pollen release and stigma
receptivity, and close proximity between anthers and stigma.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In a normal flower which opens and exposes the anthers and the stigma, complete
autogamy is rather rare.
Reason (R): Autogamy in open flowers requires synchrony in pollen release and stigma
receptivity, and close proximity between anthers and stigma.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
42.Consider the following statements regarding the flowers of Viola, Oxalis, and Commelina:
I. These plants produce two types of flowers: chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers.
II. Chasmogamous flowers are similar to flowers of other species with exposed anthers and
stigma.
III. Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all.
IV. In cleistogamous flowers, the anthers and stigma lie close to each other.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. These plants produce two types of flowers: chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers.
II. Chasmogamous flowers are similar to flowers of other species with exposed anthers and
stigma.
III. Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all.
IV. In cleistogamous flowers, the anthers and stigma lie close to each other.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
43.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of
pollinators.
Reason (R): Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous as they do not open, leaving no
chance of cross-pollen landing on the stigma.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of
pollinators.
Reason (R): Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous as they do not open, leaving no
chance of cross-pollen landing on the stigma.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
44.Consider the following statements regarding geitonogamy and xenogamy:
I. Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower
of the same plant.
II. Functionally, geitonogamy is cross-pollination involving a pollinating agent.
III. Genetically, geitonogamy is similar to autogamy since the pollen grains come from the same
plant.
IV. Xenogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a different plant,
bringing genetically different pollen to the stigma.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower
of the same plant.
II. Functionally, geitonogamy is cross-pollination involving a pollinating agent.
III. Genetically, geitonogamy is similar to autogamy since the pollen grains come from the same
plant.
IV. Xenogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a different plant,
bringing genetically different pollen to the stigma.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
45.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Only a small proportion of plants use abiotic agents for pollination.
Reason (R): Plants use two abiotic agents (wind and water) and one biotic agent (animals) to
achieve pollination, and majority of plants use biotic agents.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Only a small proportion of plants use abiotic agents for pollination.
Reason (R): Plants use two abiotic agents (wind and water) and one biotic agent (animals) to
achieve pollination, and majority of plants use biotic agents.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
46.Consider the following statements regarding the uncertainty and compensation in abiotic
pollination:
I. Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water
pollination.
II. To compensate for uncertainties and associated loss of pollen grains, flowers produce
enormous amounts of pollen.
III. The amount of pollen produced is compared to the number of ovules available for
pollination.
IV. Wind-pollinated flowers have hundreds of ovules in each ovary to maximize fertilization
chances.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
pollination:
I. Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water
pollination.
II. To compensate for uncertainties and associated loss of pollen grains, flowers produce
enormous amounts of pollen.
III. The amount of pollen produced is compared to the number of ovules available for
pollination.
IV. Wind-pollinated flowers have hundreds of ovules in each ovary to maximize fertilization
chances.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
47.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wind pollination requires that the pollen grains are light and non-sticky.
Reason (R): Light and non-sticky pollen grains allow them to be easily transported in wind
currents.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wind pollination requires that the pollen grains are light and non-sticky.
Reason (R): Light and non-sticky pollen grains allow them to be easily transported in wind
currents.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
48.Consider the following statements regarding the floral structures of wind-pollinated
plants:
I. They often possess well-exposed stamens so that pollen is easily dispersed into wind currents.
II. They often possess large, feathery stigmas to easily trap air-borne pollen grains.
III. They often have a single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed into an
inflorescence.
IV. A familiar example of wind pollination is the corn cob, where the tassels are the stigmas and
styles.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
plants:
I. They often possess well-exposed stamens so that pollen is easily dispersed into wind currents.
II. They often possess large, feathery stigmas to easily trap air-borne pollen grains.
III. They often have a single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed into an
inflorescence.
IV. A familiar example of wind pollination is the corn cob, where the tassels are the stigmas and
styles.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
49.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited to about 30
genera, mostly monocotyledons.
Reason (R): Monocotyledons generally grow in marine habitats where water currents are stable.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited to about 30
genera, mostly monocotyledons.
Reason (R): Monocotyledons generally grow in marine habitats where water currents are stable.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
50.Consider the following statements regarding the use of water as a transport medium in
lower plants versus angiosperms:
I. Water is a regular mode of transport for male gametes in algae, bryophytes, and
pteridophytes.
II. The distribution of some bryophytes and pteridophytes is limited because of the need for
water for transport of male gametes and fertilisation.
III. Water-pollinated angiosperms are represented by freshwater Vallisneria and Hydrilla.
IV. Water-pollinated marine sea-grasses are represented by Zostera.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
lower plants versus angiosperms:
I. Water is a regular mode of transport for male gametes in algae, bryophytes, and
pteridophytes.
II. The distribution of some bryophytes and pteridophytes is limited because of the need for
water for transport of male gametes and fertilisation.
III. Water-pollinated angiosperms are represented by freshwater Vallisneria and Hydrilla.
IV. Water-pollinated marine sea-grasses are represented by Zostera.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
51.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at the 2-celled stage.
Reason (R): In the remaining species, the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the
two male gametes before pollen grains are shed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at the 2-celled stage.
Reason (R): In the remaining species, the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the
two male gametes before pollen grains are shed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
52.Consider the following statements regarding the vegetative and generative cells of a
mature pollen grain:
I. The vegetative cell is larger, possesses abundant food reserves, and contains a large, regularly
shaped spherical nucleus.
II. The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.
III. The generative cell is spindle-shaped with dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
IV. The vegetative cell undergoes meiotic division to produce the male gametes upon landing on
the stigma.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
mature pollen grain:
I. The vegetative cell is larger, possesses abundant food reserves, and contains a large, regularly
shaped spherical nucleus.
II. The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.
III. The generative cell is spindle-shaped with dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
IV. The vegetative cell undergoes meiotic division to produce the male gametes upon landing on
the stigma.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
53.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Parthenium or carrot grass, which came into India as a contaminant with
imported rice, has become ubiquitous in occurrence and causes pollen allergy.
Reason (R): Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in
some people, often leading to chronic respiratory disorders like asthma and bronchitis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Parthenium or carrot grass, which came into India as a contaminant with
imported rice, has become ubiquitous in occurrence and causes pollen allergy.
Reason (R): Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in
some people, often leading to chronic respiratory disorders like asthma and bronchitis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
54.Consider the following statements regarding the commercial usage of pollen grains:
I. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, which has led to their modern use as food supplements.
II. In western countries, pollen products are available in the market only as liquid syrups and
never as solid tablets.
III. Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and race
horses.
IV. Storing animal semen/sperms in liquid nitrogen is a common practice for artificial
insemination.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, which has led to their modern use as food supplements.
II. In western countries, pollen products are available in the market only as liquid syrups and
never as solid tablets.
III. Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and race
horses.
IV. Storing animal semen/sperms in liquid nitrogen is a common practice for artificial
insemination.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
55.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Once shed, pollen grains must land on the stigma before they lose viability if they
are to bring about fertilisation.
Reason (R): Storing pollen grains at highly elevated temperatures increases their cellular
viability indefinitely.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Once shed, pollen grains must land on the stigma before they lose viability if they
are to bring about fertilisation.
Reason (R): Storing pollen grains at highly elevated temperatures increases their cellular
viability indefinitely.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
56.Consider the following statements regarding the duration of pollen viability in different
plant families:
I. In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains retain viability for several months after
their release.
II. Rice and wheat pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release.
III. Members of Solanaceae, Rosaceae, and Leguminosae maintain pollen viability for months.
IV. The viability of pollen grains is highly uniform across all angiosperm taxa and is unaffected
by humidity.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
plant families:
I. In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains retain viability for several months after
their release.
II. Rice and wheat pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release.
III. Members of Solanaceae, Rosaceae, and Leguminosae maintain pollen viability for months.
IV. The viability of pollen grains is highly uniform across all angiosperm taxa and is unaffected
by humidity.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
57.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid
nitrogen at -196 °C.
Reason (R): Stored pollen can be used as pollen banks, similar to seed banks, in crop breeding
programmes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid
nitrogen at -196 °C.
Reason (R): Stored pollen can be used as pollen banks, similar to seed banks, in crop breeding
programmes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
58.Consider the following statements regarding the structural properties of pollen grain
walls:
I. The exine is a hard outer layer composed of sporopollenin, which is highly resistant to
enzymatic degradation.
II. The exine is a thin and continuous layer that contains germ pores where sporopollenin is
absent.
III. The intine is a thin, continuous wall layer composed of cellulose and pectin.
IV. Storing pollen in liquid nitrogen at -196 °C preserves its structural integrity for crop
breeding programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
walls:
I. The exine is a hard outer layer composed of sporopollenin, which is highly resistant to
enzymatic degradation.
II. The exine is a thin and continuous layer that contains germ pores where sporopollenin is
absent.
III. The intine is a thin, continuous wall layer composed of cellulose and pectin.
IV. Storing pollen in liquid nitrogen at -196 °C preserves its structural integrity for crop
breeding programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
59.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The vegetative cell is the cell that undergoes meiotic division to form the two male
gametes in a pollen grain.
Reason (R): The generative cell is a small, spindle-shaped cell with dense cytoplasm and a
nucleus that floats within the vegetative cell's cytoplasm.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The vegetative cell is the cell that undergoes meiotic division to form the two male
gametes in a pollen grain.
Reason (R): The generative cell is a small, spindle-shaped cell with dense cytoplasm and a
nucleus that floats within the vegetative cell's cytoplasm.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
60.Consider the following statements regarding the allergenic potential and impact of pollen
grains:
I. Pollen grains of some species can cause severe allergies leading to chronic respiratory
disorders like asthma and bronchitis.
II. Parthenium is commonly known as carrot grass in India.
III. Carrot grass entered India as a contaminant with imported wheat.
IV. Parthenium has become ubiquitous in occurrence across India and causes pollen allergy.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
grains:
I. Pollen grains of some species can cause severe allergies leading to chronic respiratory
disorders like asthma and bronchitis.
II. Parthenium is commonly known as carrot grass in India.
III. Carrot grass entered India as a contaminant with imported wheat.
IV. Parthenium has become ubiquitous in occurrence across India and causes pollen allergy.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
61.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
Reason (R): In a majority of aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and water lily, the flowers
emerge above the level of water and are pollinated by insects or wind.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
Reason (R): In a majority of aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and water lily, the flowers
emerge above the level of water and are pollinated by insects or wind.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
62.Consider the following statements regarding pollination mechanisms in Vallisneria and
marine sea-grasses:
I. In Vallisneria, the female flower reaches the surface of water by a long stalk.
II. In Vallisneria, the male flowers or pollen grains are released onto the surface of water and
carried passively by water currents.
III. In sea-grasses, female flowers remain submerged in water and pollen grains are released
inside the water.
IV. Pollen grains in marine sea-grasses are long and ribbon-like, carried passively inside the
water.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
marine sea-grasses:
I. In Vallisneria, the female flower reaches the surface of water by a long stalk.
II. In Vallisneria, the male flowers or pollen grains are released onto the surface of water and
carried passively by water currents.
III. In sea-grasses, female flowers remain submerged in water and pollen grains are released
inside the water.
IV. Pollen grains in marine sea-grasses are long and ribbon-like, carried passively inside the
water.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
63.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In most of the water-pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from wetting.
Reason (R): Water-pollinated pollen grains possess a mucilaginous covering that prevents water
absorption and wetting.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In most of the water-pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from wetting.
Reason (R): Water-pollinated pollen grains possess a mucilaginous covering that prevents water
absorption and wetting.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
64.Consider the following statements regarding the sensory properties of wind and water
pollinated flowers:
I. Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful.
II. Both wind and water pollinated flowers do not produce nectar.
III. Colour and nectar are evolutionary rewards developed specifically to attract animal vectors.
IV. Wind-pollinated flowers produce foul odours to attract wind currents.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
pollinated flowers:
I. Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful.
II. Both wind and water pollinated flowers do not produce nectar.
III. Colour and nectar are evolutionary rewards developed specifically to attract animal vectors.
IV. Wind-pollinated flowers produce foul odours to attract wind currents.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
65.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Among the animals, insects, particularly bees, are the dominant biotic pollinating
agents.
Reason (R): A range of animals including primates, rodents, and reptiles have also been
reported as pollinators in some plant species.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Among the animals, insects, particularly bees, are the dominant biotic pollinating
agents.
Reason (R): A range of animals including primates, rodents, and reptiles have also been
reported as pollinators in some plant species.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
66.Consider the following statements regarding the features of insect-pollinated flowers:
I. Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant, and rich in nectar.
II. When the flowers are small, a number of flowers are clustered into an inflorescence to make
them conspicuous.
III. The flowers pollinated by flies and beetles secrete foul odours to attract these animals.
IV. Pollen grains in animal-pollinated flowers are generally dry and light to float on animal
bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant, and rich in nectar.
II. When the flowers are small, a number of flowers are clustered into an inflorescence to make
them conspicuous.
III. The flowers pollinated by flies and beetles secrete foul odours to attract these animals.
IV. Pollen grains in animal-pollinated flowers are generally dry and light to float on animal
bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
67.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): To sustain animal visits, flowers have to provide rewards to the animals.
Reason (R): Nectar and pollen grains are the usual floral rewards that animal visitors seek.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): To sustain animal visits, flowers have to provide rewards to the animals.
Reason (R): Nectar and pollen grains are the usual floral rewards that animal visitors seek.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
68.Consider the following statements regarding the special floral rewards and mutualism:
I. In some species, floral rewards are in providing safe places to lay eggs.
II. An example of providing safe places to lay eggs is the tallest flower of Amorphophallus.
III. The flower of Amorphophallus itself is about 6 feet in height.
IV. Amorphophallus is a marine sea-grass that grows in deep ocean trenches.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. In some species, floral rewards are in providing safe places to lay eggs.
II. An example of providing safe places to lay eggs is the tallest flower of Amorphophallus.
III. The flower of Amorphophallus itself is about 6 feet in height.
IV. Amorphophallus is a marine sea-grass that grows in deep ocean trenches.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
69.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A species of moth and the plant Yucca cannot complete their life cycles without
each other.
Reason (R): The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary and the flower, in turn, gets
pollinated by the moth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A species of moth and the plant Yucca cannot complete their life cycles without
each other.
Reason (R): The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary and the flower, in turn, gets
pollinated by the moth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
70.Consider the following statements regarding the timing and development of Yucca moth
larvae:
I. The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary.
II. The flower gets pollinated by the moth.
III. The larvae of the moth come out of the eggs as the seeds start developing.
IV. The larvae consume all the seeds of the Yucca plant, leaving none for plant reproduction.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
larvae:
I. The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary.
II. The flower gets pollinated by the moth.
III. The larvae of the moth come out of the eggs as the seeds start developing.
IV. The larvae consume all the seeds of the Yucca plant, leaving none for plant reproduction.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
71.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The gynoecium of Papaver is described as multicarpellary and syncarpous.
Reason (R): In Michelia, the gynoecium consists of multiple carpels which are free from each
other (apocarpous).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The gynoecium of Papaver is described as multicarpellary and syncarpous.
Reason (R): In Michelia, the gynoecium consists of multiple carpels which are free from each
other (apocarpous).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
72.Consider the following statements regarding the parts of a typical pistil:
I. The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains.
II. The style is the basal bulged part of the pistil containing the ovarian cavity.
III. The ovary is the elongated slender part beneath the stigma.
IV. Inside the ovary is the ovarian cavity or locule.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains.
II. The style is the basal bulged part of the pistil containing the ovarian cavity.
III. The ovary is the elongated slender part beneath the stigma.
IV. Inside the ovary is the ovarian cavity or locule.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
73.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The number of ovules inside a single ovary is highly variable in different
angiosperm species.
Reason (R): Ovaries of papaya, watermelon, and orchids contain a single ovule, whereas those
of wheat, paddy, and mango contain many.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The number of ovules inside a single ovary is highly variable in different
angiosperm species.
Reason (R): Ovaries of papaya, watermelon, and orchids contain a single ovule, whereas those
of wheat, paddy, and mango contain many.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
74.Consider the following statements regarding the inner structures of the ovary:
I. The placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity (locule).
II. Megasporangia are commonly called ovules and arise from the placenta.
III. The number of ovules in wheat, paddy, and mango is typically one.
IV. The number of ovules in orchids is typically one, whereas in mango it is many.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity (locule).
II. Megasporangia are commonly called ovules and arise from the placenta.
III. The number of ovules in wheat, paddy, and mango is typically one.
IV. The number of ovules in orchids is typically one, whereas in mango it is many.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
75.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The ovule is attached to the placenta by means of a stalk called the funicle.
Reason (R): The hilum represents the junction where the body of the ovule fuses with the
funicle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The ovule is attached to the placenta by means of a stalk called the funicle.
Reason (R): The hilum represents the junction where the body of the ovule fuses with the
funicle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
76.Consider the following statements regarding the protective and structural components of a
typical ovule:
I. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called integuments.
II. The hilum represents the junction between the body of the ovule and the placenta.
III. Integuments encircle the nucellus except at the tip where a small opening called the
micropyle is organised.
IV. Cells of the nucellus contain abundant reserve food materials to nourish the embryo sac.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
typical ovule:
I. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called integuments.
II. The hilum represents the junction between the body of the ovule and the placenta.
III. Integuments encircle the nucellus except at the tip where a small opening called the
micropyle is organised.
IV. Cells of the nucellus contain abundant reserve food materials to nourish the embryo sac.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
77.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The micropyle is organized as a small opening at the tip of the ovule where
integuments are absent.
Reason (R): The chalaza, representing the basal part of the ovule, lies opposite to the micropylar
end.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The micropyle is organized as a small opening at the tip of the ovule where
integuments are absent.
Reason (R): The chalaza, representing the basal part of the ovule, lies opposite to the micropylar
end.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
78.Consider the following statements regarding the structural polarity of a typical
angiosperm ovule:
I. The chalaza represents the basal part of the ovule.
II. The micropyle represents the basal part of the ovule and lies opposite the chalaza.
III. The nucellus is a mass of cells enclosed within the protective integuments.
IV. Located in the nucellus is the embryo sac or female gametophyte.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
angiosperm ovule:
I. The chalaza represents the basal part of the ovule.
II. The micropyle represents the basal part of the ovule and lies opposite the chalaza.
III. The nucellus is a mass of cells enclosed within the protective integuments.
IV. Located in the nucellus is the embryo sac or female gametophyte.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
79.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials.
Reason (R): Located in the nucellus is the embryo sac or female gametophyte.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials.
Reason (R): Located in the nucellus is the embryo sac or female gametophyte.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
80.Consider the following statements regarding the differentiation of the Megaspore Mother
Cell (MMC):
I. Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell (MMC).
II. The MMC is differentiated in the chalazal region of the nucellus.
III. The MMC is a large cell containing dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
IV. The MMC undergoes meiotic division to produce megaspores.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
Cell (MMC):
I. Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell (MMC).
II. The MMC is differentiated in the chalazal region of the nucellus.
III. The MMC is a large cell containing dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
IV. The MMC undergoes meiotic division to produce megaspores.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
81.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In monosporic development, all four megaspores formed from the MMC develop
into embryo sacs.
Reason (R): In a majority of flowering plants, only one of the megaspores is functional while the
other three degenerate.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In monosporic development, all four megaspores formed from the MMC develop
into embryo sacs.
Reason (R): In a majority of flowering plants, only one of the megaspores is functional while the
other three degenerate.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
82.Consider the following statements regarding the general anatomy of an angiosperm ovule:
I. The nucellus represents a mass of parenchymatous cells enclosed by protective integuments.
II. A typical ovule generally has a single embryo sac formed from a megaspore.
III. The micropyle is organized at the base of the ovule where the funicle attaches to the
placenta.
IV. The chalaza is located opposite the micropylar end.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The nucellus represents a mass of parenchymatous cells enclosed by protective integuments.
II. A typical ovule generally has a single embryo sac formed from a megaspore.
III. The micropyle is organized at the base of the ovule where the funicle attaches to the
placenta.
IV. The chalaza is located opposite the micropylar end.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
83.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cells of the nucellus and the MMC are diploid, whereas the functional megaspore
is haploid.
Reason (R): The MMC undergoes mitotic division to produce a tetrad of four megaspores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cells of the nucellus and the MMC are diploid, whereas the functional megaspore
is haploid.
Reason (R): The MMC undergoes mitotic division to produce a tetrad of four megaspores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
84.Consider the following statements regarding the early mitotic divisions of the functional
megaspore:
I. The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei.
II. The two nuclei move to opposite poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac.
III. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions lead to the 4-nucleate and later 8-nucleate
stages.
IV. Cell walls are laid down immediately after each nuclear division in the functional
megaspore.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
megaspore:
I. The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei.
II. The two nuclei move to opposite poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac.
III. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions lead to the 4-nucleate and later 8-nucleate
stages.
IV. Cell walls are laid down immediately after each nuclear division in the functional
megaspore.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
85.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The pistil of Papaver shows a syncarpous gynoecium where multiple carpels are
fused together.
Reason (R): Both Clematis and Michelia are standard examples of syncarpous gynoecium
shown in the NCERT chapter diagrams.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The pistil of Papaver shows a syncarpous gynoecium where multiple carpels are
fused together.
Reason (R): Both Clematis and Michelia are standard examples of syncarpous gynoecium
shown in the NCERT chapter diagrams.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
86.Consider the following statements regarding the terminology of the female reproductive
organ in flowers:
I. A monocarpellary gynoecium contains a single pistil.
II. A multicarpellary gynoecium contains more than one pistil.
III. In a syncarpous gynoecium, the pistils are fused together.
IV. In an apocarpous gynoecium, the pistils are free from each other.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
organ in flowers:
I. A monocarpellary gynoecium contains a single pistil.
II. A multicarpellary gynoecium contains more than one pistil.
III. In a syncarpous gynoecium, the pistils are fused together.
IV. In an apocarpous gynoecium, the pistils are free from each other.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
87.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The hilum represents the junction between the body of the ovule and the funicle.
Reason (R): The body of the ovule fuses with the funicle in the region of the hilum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The hilum represents the junction between the body of the ovule and the funicle.
Reason (R): The body of the ovule fuses with the funicle in the region of the hilum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
88.Consider the following statements regarding the parts of a typical megasporangium
(ovule):
I. Integuments are protective envelopes that encircle the nucellus completely, except at the tip
where the micropyle is located.
II. The chalaza is located opposite the micropyle and represents the basal part of the ovule.
III. The embryo sac (female gametophyte) is located inside the nucellus.
IV. The nucellus cells have sparse cytoplasm and contain no reserve food materials.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
(ovule):
I. Integuments are protective envelopes that encircle the nucellus completely, except at the tip
where the micropyle is located.
II. The chalaza is located opposite the micropyle and represents the basal part of the ovule.
III. The embryo sac (female gametophyte) is located inside the nucellus.
IV. The nucellus cells have sparse cytoplasm and contain no reserve food materials.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
89.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The megaspore mother cell (MMC) is differentiated in the micropylar region of
the nucellus.
Reason (R): The MMC is a small, vacuolated cell with thin cytoplasm and a microscopic
nucleus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The megaspore mother cell (MMC) is differentiated in the micropylar region of
the nucellus.
Reason (R): The MMC is a small, vacuolated cell with thin cytoplasm and a microscopic
nucleus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
90.Consider the following statements regarding the structural parts of a typical angiosperm
ovule:
I. The funicle is the stalk that attaches the ovule to the placenta.
II. The hilum is the fusion region representing the junction between the ovule and the funicle.
III. The micropyle is a small opening where the protective integuments are absent.
IV. The chalaza is located opposite the micropyle and represents the basal part of the ovule.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
ovule:
I. The funicle is the stalk that attaches the ovule to the placenta.
II. The hilum is the fusion region representing the junction between the ovule and the funicle.
III. The micropyle is a small opening where the protective integuments are absent.
IV. The chalaza is located opposite the micropyle and represents the basal part of the ovule.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
91.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Many insects may consume pollen or the nectar without bringing about
pollination.
Reason (R): Such floral visitors are referred to as pollen/nectar robbers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Many insects may consume pollen or the nectar without bringing about
pollination.
Reason (R): Such floral visitors are referred to as pollen/nectar robbers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
92.Consider the following statements regarding self-pollination and outbreeding devices:
I. Majority of flowering plants produce hermaphrodite flowers.
II. In hermaphrodite flowers, pollen grains are likely to come in contact with the stigma of the
same flower.
III. Continued self-pollination results in inbreeding depression.
IV. Flowering plants have developed devices to encourage self-pollination and discourage cross-
pollination.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Majority of flowering plants produce hermaphrodite flowers.
II. In hermaphrodite flowers, pollen grains are likely to come in contact with the stigma of the
same flower.
III. Continued self-pollination results in inbreeding depression.
IV. Flowering plants have developed devices to encourage self-pollination and discourage cross-
pollination.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
93.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In some species, self-pollination is prevented because pollen release and stigma
receptivity are not synchronised.
Reason (R): Either the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive or the stigma
becomes receptive much before the release of pollen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In some species, self-pollination is prevented because pollen release and stigma
receptivity are not synchronised.
Reason (R): Either the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive or the stigma
becomes receptive much before the release of pollen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
94.Consider the following statements regarding the spatial and genetic outbreeding devices:
I. In some species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions so that pollen cannot
contact the stigma of the same flower.
II. Placement of anther and stigma at different positions prevents autogamy.
III. Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism that prevents self-pollen from fertilising the
ovules.
IV. Self-incompatibility works by promoting pollen tube growth in the style to accelerate
fertilization.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. In some species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions so that pollen cannot
contact the stigma of the same flower.
II. Placement of anther and stigma at different positions prevents autogamy.
III. Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism that prevents self-pollen from fertilising the
ovules.
IV. Self-incompatibility works by promoting pollen tube growth in the style to accelerate
fertilization.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
95.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In castor and maize, autogamy is prevented but geitonogamy is not.
Reason (R): Castor and maize are monoecious plants where both male and female flowers are
present on the same plant.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In castor and maize, autogamy is prevented but geitonogamy is not.
Reason (R): Castor and maize are monoecious plants where both male and female flowers are
present on the same plant.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
96.Consider the following statements regarding dioecy and its role in preventing self-
pollination:
I. In several species such as papaya, male and female flowers are present on different plants.
II. In papaya, each plant is either male or female.
III. The dioecious condition in papaya prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
IV. Castor also shows the dioecious condition and prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
pollination:
I. In several species such as papaya, male and female flowers are present on different plants.
II. In papaya, each plant is either male or female.
III. The dioecious condition in papaya prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
IV. Castor also shows the dioecious condition and prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
97.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The ability of the pistil to recognise the pollen followed by its acceptance or
rejection is the result of a continuous dialogue between pollen grain and the pistil.
Reason (R): This dialogue is mediated by chemical components of the pollen interacting with
those of the pistil.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The ability of the pistil to recognise the pollen followed by its acceptance or
rejection is the result of a continuous dialogue between pollen grain and the pistil.
Reason (R): This dialogue is mediated by chemical components of the pollen interacting with
those of the pistil.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
98.Consider the following statements regarding pollen tube growth after compatible
pollination:
I. Following compatible pollination, the pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a
pollen tube.
II. The pollen tube grows out through one of the germ pores.
III. The contents of the pollen grain move into the pollen tube.
IV. Pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma and style and reaches the ovary.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
pollination:
I. Following compatible pollination, the pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a
pollen tube.
II. The pollen tube grows out through one of the germ pores.
III. The contents of the pollen grain move into the pollen tube.
IV. Pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma and style and reaches the ovary.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
99.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In plants that shed pollen at the 2-celled condition, the generative cell divides
during the growth of the pollen tube in the stigma.
Reason (R): The generative cell undergoes meiotic division to form the two male gametes inside
the pollen tube.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In plants that shed pollen at the 2-celled condition, the generative cell divides
during the growth of the pollen tube in the stigma.
Reason (R): The generative cell undergoes meiotic division to form the two male gametes inside
the pollen tube.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
100.Consider the following statements regarding the entry of the pollen tube into the ovule
and embryo sac:
I. In plants which shed pollen in the three-celled condition, pollen tubes carry the two male
gametes from the beginning.
II. The pollen tube enters the ovule through the micropyle.
III. After entering the ovule, the pollen tube enters one of the synergids through the filiform
apparatus.
IV. The filiform apparatus present at the chalazal part of the synergids guides the entry of the
pollen tube.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
and embryo sac:
I. In plants which shed pollen in the three-celled condition, pollen tubes carry the two male
gametes from the beginning.
II. The pollen tube enters the ovule through the micropyle.
III. After entering the ovule, the pollen tube enters one of the synergids through the filiform
apparatus.
IV. The filiform apparatus present at the chalazal part of the synergids guides the entry of the
pollen tube.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
101.Consider the following statements regarding the initiation of megasporogenesis:
I. Megasporogenesis is the process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell
(MMC).
II. The ovule differentiates a single megaspore mother cell in the chalazal region of the nucellus.
III. The MMC is a diploid cell that undergoes meiotic division.
IV. Meiosis of the MMC results in the production of four megaspores.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Megasporogenesis is the process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell
(MMC).
II. The ovule differentiates a single megaspore mother cell in the chalazal region of the nucellus.
III. The MMC is a diploid cell that undergoes meiotic division.
IV. Meiosis of the MMC results in the production of four megaspores.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
102.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The megaspore mother cell (MMC) is a prominent, specialized cell that can be
easily identified in the young nucellus.
Reason (R): The MMC is a large cell containing dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The megaspore mother cell (MMC) is a prominent, specialized cell that can be
easily identified in the young nucellus.
Reason (R): The MMC is a large cell containing dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
103.Consider the following statements regarding the fates of the four megaspores formed
after meiosis:
I. In a majority of flowering plants, only one of the megaspores is functional.
II. The remaining three megaspores degenerate during development.
III. The functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte or embryo sac.
IV. The degeneration of three megaspores is a rare anomaly in angiosperms, occurring in less
than 5% of families.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
after meiosis:
I. In a majority of flowering plants, only one of the megaspores is functional.
II. The remaining three megaspores degenerate during development.
III. The functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte or embryo sac.
IV. The degeneration of three megaspores is a rare anomaly in angiosperms, occurring in less
than 5% of families.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
104.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed
monosporic development.
Reason (R): In monosporic development, all four megaspores are genetically identical due to
mitotic origin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed
monosporic development.
Reason (R): In monosporic development, all four megaspores are genetically identical due to
mitotic origin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
105.Consider the following statements regarding the ploidy levels of various tissues in a
developing ovule:
I. The cells of the nucellus are diploid (2n).
II. The megaspore mother cell (MMC) is diploid (2n).
III. The functional megaspore is haploid (n).
IV. The female gametophyte (embryo sac) cells are diploid (2n).
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
developing ovule:
I. The cells of the nucellus are diploid (2n).
II. The megaspore mother cell (MMC) is diploid (2n).
III. The functional megaspore is haploid (n).
IV. The female gametophyte (embryo sac) cells are diploid (2n).
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
106.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The first mitotic division of the functional megaspore nucleus results in a 2-
nucleate embryo sac.
Reason (R): After the first division, the two resulting nuclei move to opposite poles of the sac.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The first mitotic division of the functional megaspore nucleus results in a 2-
nucleate embryo sac.
Reason (R): After the first division, the two resulting nuclei move to opposite poles of the sac.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
107.Consider the following statements regarding the sequential divisions during embryo sac
formation:
I. A total of three sequential mitotic divisions occur in the megaspore nucleus to reach the 8-
nucleate stage.
II. The second mitotic division leads to the 4-nucleate stage.
III. The third mitotic division leads to the 8-nucleate stage.
IV. Each division is accompanied by immediate cell wall deposition.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
formation:
I. A total of three sequential mitotic divisions occur in the megaspore nucleus to reach the 8-
nucleate stage.
II. The second mitotic division leads to the 4-nucleate stage.
III. The third mitotic division leads to the 8-nucleate stage.
IV. Each division is accompanied by immediate cell wall deposition.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
108.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The mitotic divisions in the developing female gametophyte are described as
strictly free nuclear.
Reason (R): Nuclear divisions are not followed immediately by cell wall formation in the early
stages.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The mitotic divisions in the developing female gametophyte are described as
strictly free nuclear.
Reason (R): Nuclear divisions are not followed immediately by cell wall formation in the early
stages.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
109.Consider the following statements regarding the events occurring after the 8-nucleate
stage of the embryo sac:
I. Cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation of the typical female gametophyte.
II. Out of the eight nuclei, six are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells.
III. The remaining two nuclei are called polar nuclei.
IV. The polar nuclei are enclosed in their own separate small cell at the chalazal end.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
stage of the embryo sac:
I. Cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation of the typical female gametophyte.
II. Out of the eight nuclei, six are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells.
III. The remaining two nuclei are called polar nuclei.
IV. The polar nuclei are enclosed in their own separate small cell at the chalazal end.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
110.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 7-celled despite having 8
nuclei.
Reason (R): The large central cell contains two polar nuclei that do not undergo cell wall
formation around them.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 7-celled despite having 8
nuclei.
Reason (R): The large central cell contains two polar nuclei that do not undergo cell wall
formation around them.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
111.Consider the following statements regarding the egg apparatus located in the mature
embryo sac:
I. Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end to constitute the egg apparatus.
II. The egg apparatus consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
III. The egg cell is positioned between the two synergids.
IV. The egg apparatus is located at the chalazal end of the embryo sac.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
embryo sac:
I. Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end to constitute the egg apparatus.
II. The egg apparatus consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
III. The egg cell is positioned between the two synergids.
IV. The egg apparatus is located at the chalazal end of the embryo sac.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
112.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Three cells are grouped at the chalazal end of the mature embryo sac and are
called antipodals.
Reason (R): The antipodals are diploid cells that degenerate immediately after triple fusion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Three cells are grouped at the chalazal end of the mature embryo sac and are
called antipodals.
Reason (R): The antipodals are diploid cells that degenerate immediately after triple fusion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
113.Consider the following statements regarding the synergids and their specialized
structures:
I. The synergids have special cellular thickenings at their micropylar tip.
II. These specialized cellular thickenings are called the filiform apparatus.
III. The filiform apparatus plays an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.
IV. The filiform apparatus is a secretory gland located on the egg cell membrane.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
structures:
I. The synergids have special cellular thickenings at their micropylar tip.
II. These specialized cellular thickenings are called the filiform apparatus.
III. The filiform apparatus plays an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.
IV. The filiform apparatus is a secretory gland located on the egg cell membrane.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
114.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The pollen tube must enter one of the synergids to complete double fertilisation.
Reason (R): The filiform apparatus at the micropylar tip of the synergids guides the entry of the
pollen tube into the synergid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The pollen tube must enter one of the synergids to complete double fertilisation.
Reason (R): The filiform apparatus at the micropylar tip of the synergids guides the entry of the
pollen tube into the synergid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
115.Consider the following statements regarding the central cell of the mature embryo sac:
I. The central cell is the largest cell of the female gametophyte.
II. It contains two polar nuclei situated below the egg apparatus.
III. The polar nuclei fuse to form a diploid secondary nucleus before fertilisation.
IV. The central cell is situated above the antipodals at the micropylar end.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The central cell is the largest cell of the female gametophyte.
II. It contains two polar nuclei situated below the egg apparatus.
III. The polar nuclei fuse to form a diploid secondary nucleus before fertilisation.
IV. The central cell is situated above the antipodals at the micropylar end.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
116.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The spatial arrangement of cells in the mature embryo sac is highly polarized.
Reason (R): The egg apparatus is always at the micropylar end, the antipodals are at the
chalazal end, and the polar nuclei are in the center.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The spatial arrangement of cells in the mature embryo sac is highly polarized.
Reason (R): The egg apparatus is always at the micropylar end, the antipodals are at the
chalazal end, and the polar nuclei are in the center.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
117.Consider the following comparative statements between the male gametophyte (pollen
grain) and the female gametophyte (embryo sac) at maturity:
I. The mature male gametophyte is typically 2-celled or 3-celled, while the female gametophyte
is 7-celled.
II. Both gametophytes develop from haploid spores (microspores and megaspores respectively).
III. The male gametophyte contains two male gametes at maturity in all angiosperms.
IV. The female gametophyte contains a single egg cell (female gamete) at maturity.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
grain) and the female gametophyte (embryo sac) at maturity:
I. The mature male gametophyte is typically 2-celled or 3-celled, while the female gametophyte
is 7-celled.
II. Both gametophytes develop from haploid spores (microspores and megaspores respectively).
III. The male gametophyte contains two male gametes at maturity in all angiosperms.
IV. The female gametophyte contains a single egg cell (female gamete) at maturity.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
118.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The division of the megaspore mother cell (MMC) is meiotic, not mitotic.
Reason (R): Meiosis is necessary to reduce the ploidy from diploid to haploid, ensuring the
production of haploid megaspores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The division of the megaspore mother cell (MMC) is meiotic, not mitotic.
Reason (R): Meiosis is necessary to reduce the ploidy from diploid to haploid, ensuring the
production of haploid megaspores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
119.Consider the following events in the development of a mature female gametophyte in
angiosperms:
I. Differentiation of a single diploid MMC in the micropylar region of the nucellus.
II. Meiotic division of the MMC producing a linear tetrad of four haploid megaspores.
III. Degeneration of three megaspores and survival of one functional megaspore.
IV. Three sequential mitotic nuclear divisions of the functional megaspore nucleus to form an 8-
nucleate stage.
V. Deposition of cell walls to organize the 8 nuclei into a 7-celled, 8-nucleate structure.
Which of the statements given above represents the correct developmental sequence?
angiosperms:
I. Differentiation of a single diploid MMC in the micropylar region of the nucellus.
II. Meiotic division of the MMC producing a linear tetrad of four haploid megaspores.
III. Degeneration of three megaspores and survival of one functional megaspore.
IV. Three sequential mitotic nuclear divisions of the functional megaspore nucleus to form an 8-
nucleate stage.
V. Deposition of cell walls to organize the 8 nuclei into a 7-celled, 8-nucleate structure.
Which of the statements given above represents the correct developmental sequence?
120.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): To form a mature 8-nucleate embryo sac from a functional megaspore, three
mitotic divisions of the nucleus are required.
Reason (R): Each mitotic division doubles the number of nuclei, so 2^3 = 8 nuclei are formed
after three successive divisions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): To form a mature 8-nucleate embryo sac from a functional megaspore, three
mitotic divisions of the nucleus are required.
Reason (R): Each mitotic division doubles the number of nuclei, so 2^3 = 8 nuclei are formed
after three successive divisions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
121.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Dusting pollen grains from Vinca on a glass slide with a 10 per cent sugar
solution triggers pollen tube growth within 30 minutes.
Reason (R): The sugar solution provides the necessary osmotic potential and nutrients that
mimic the chemical secretions of the stigma.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Dusting pollen grains from Vinca on a glass slide with a 10 per cent sugar
solution triggers pollen tube growth within 30 minutes.
Reason (R): The sugar solution provides the necessary osmotic potential and nutrients that
mimic the chemical secretions of the stigma.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
122.Consider the following statements regarding the scope of pollen-pistil interaction:
I. It includes all events from pollen deposition on the stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule.
II. It is a static, one-step event where the pistil accepts compatible pollen immediately.
III. It is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by promotion or inhibition of
the pollen.
IV. The knowledge of these interactions is valuable for plant breeders to manipulate
incompatible crossings to get hybrids.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. It includes all events from pollen deposition on the stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule.
II. It is a static, one-step event where the pistil accepts compatible pollen immediately.
III. It is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by promotion or inhibition of
the pollen.
IV. The knowledge of these interactions is valuable for plant breeders to manipulate
incompatible crossings to get hybrids.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
123.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): If the female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for emasculation
in artificial crossing experiments.
Reason (R): Unisexual flowers do not contain both stamens and carpels, meaning a female
flower bud lacks anthers to be removed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): If the female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for emasculation
in artificial crossing experiments.
Reason (R): Unisexual flowers do not contain both stamens and carpels, meaning a female
flower bud lacks anthers to be removed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
124.Consider the following sequence of steps for artificial hybridization in a bisexual female
parent plant:
I. Removal of anthers from the flower bud before they dehisce, using forceps (emasculation).
II. Covering the emasculated flower with a bag of suitable size, generally made of butter paper
(bagging).
III. When the stigma attains receptivity, mature pollen collected from the male parent is dusted
on the stigma.
IV. After dusting the pollen, the flower is left open without any bag to allow insect visits.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
parent plant:
I. Removal of anthers from the flower bud before they dehisce, using forceps (emasculation).
II. Covering the emasculated flower with a bag of suitable size, generally made of butter paper
(bagging).
III. When the stigma attains receptivity, mature pollen collected from the male parent is dusted
on the stigma.
IV. After dusting the pollen, the flower is left open without any bag to allow insect visits.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
125.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In female parents with unisexual flowers, the female flower buds are bagged
before the flowers open.
Reason (R): Bagging prevents contamination of the stigma with unwanted pollen, ensuring that
only the desired pollen is used when the stigma becomes receptive.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In female parents with unisexual flowers, the female flower buds are bagged
before the flowers open.
Reason (R): Bagging prevents contamination of the stigma with unwanted pollen, ensuring that
only the desired pollen is used when the stigma becomes receptive.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
126.Consider the following statements regarding the events immediately after the pollen tube
enters a synergid:
I. The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergid.
II. One of the male gametes moves towards the egg cell and fuses with its nucleus, completing
syngamy.
III. The other male gamete moves towards the two polar nuclei in the central cell and fuses with
them.
IV. The fusion of the male gamete with the polar nuclei is a diploid fusion event.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
enters a synergid:
I. The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergid.
II. One of the male gametes moves towards the egg cell and fuses with its nucleus, completing
syngamy.
III. The other male gamete moves towards the two polar nuclei in the central cell and fuses with
them.
IV. The fusion of the male gamete with the polar nuclei is a diploid fusion event.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
127.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The phenomenon is termed double fertilisation, an event unique to flowering
plants.
Reason (R): Two types of fusions, syngamy and triple fusion, take place in the same embryo sac.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The phenomenon is termed double fertilisation, an event unique to flowering
plants.
Reason (R): Two types of fusions, syngamy and triple fusion, take place in the same embryo sac.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
128.Consider the following statements regarding the developmental fates of cells after double
fertilisation:
I. The central cell after triple fusion becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC).
II. The PEC develops into the endosperm.
III. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is triploid.
IV. The zygote develops into the endosperm, while the central cell develops into the embryo.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
fertilisation:
I. The central cell after triple fusion becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC).
II. The PEC develops into the endosperm.
III. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is triploid.
IV. The zygote develops into the endosperm, while the central cell develops into the embryo.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
129.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Endosperm and embryo development, maturation of ovule into seed, and ovary
into fruit are collectively termed post-fertilisation events.
Reason (R): These developmental events are initiated immediately following double fertilisation
in angiosperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Endosperm and embryo development, maturation of ovule into seed, and ovary
into fruit are collectively termed post-fertilisation events.
Reason (R): These developmental events are initiated immediately following double fertilisation
in angiosperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
130.Consider the following statements regarding the endosperm tissue development:
I. Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
II. The primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms a triploid endosperm tissue.
III. The cells of the endosperm tissue are filled with reserve food materials.
IV. The endosperm tissue is used for the nutrition of the developing embryo.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
II. The primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms a triploid endosperm tissue.
III. The cells of the endosperm tissue are filled with reserve food materials.
IV. The endosperm tissue is used for the nutrition of the developing embryo.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
131.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Flowering plants have evolved pollination as a necessary mechanism to achieve
fertilisation.
Reason (R): Both male and female gametes in angiosperms are non-motile and cannot physically
meet without an external transport mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Flowering plants have evolved pollination as a necessary mechanism to achieve
fertilisation.
Reason (R): Both male and female gametes in angiosperms are non-motile and cannot physically
meet without an external transport mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
132.Consider the following statements regarding autogamy in normal chasmogamous flowers:
I. Autogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower.
II. Complete autogamy is common in all open chasmogamous flowers even without special
adaptations.
III. Autogamy in chasmogamous flowers requires synchrony in pollen release and stigma
receptivity.
IV. The anthers and stigma must lie close to each other to enable self-pollination.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Autogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower.
II. Complete autogamy is common in all open chasmogamous flowers even without special
adaptations.
III. Autogamy in chasmogamous flowers requires synchrony in pollen release and stigma
receptivity.
IV. The anthers and stigma must lie close to each other to enable self-pollination.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
133.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Plants like Viola, Oxalis, and Commelina produce two distinct morphs of flowers.
Reason (R): These plants produce chasmogamous flowers with exposed reproductive organs,
and cleistogamous flowers which remain closed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Plants like Viola, Oxalis, and Commelina produce two distinct morphs of flowers.
Reason (R): These plants produce chasmogamous flowers with exposed reproductive organs,
and cleistogamous flowers which remain closed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
134.Consider the following statements regarding the pollination mechanics in cleistogamous
flowers:
I. Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all.
II. In these flowers, the anthers and stigma lie close to each other.
III. When anthers dehisce in the flower buds, pollen grains come in contact with the stigma.
IV. Cleistogamous flowers require cross-pollination to achieve fertilization.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
flowers:
I. Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all.
II. In these flowers, the anthers and stigma lie close to each other.
III. When anthers dehisce in the flower buds, pollen grains come in contact with the stigma.
IV. Cleistogamous flowers require cross-pollination to achieve fertilization.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
135.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cleistogamous flowers provide an ecological advantage by producing an assured
seed-set even in the complete absence of pollinators.
Reason (R): Cleistogamy ensures self-pollination through absolute flower closure, making
fertilisation independent of external agents.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cleistogamous flowers provide an ecological advantage by producing an assured
seed-set even in the complete absence of pollinators.
Reason (R): Cleistogamy ensures self-pollination through absolute flower closure, making
fertilisation independent of external agents.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
136.Consider the following statements regarding geitonogamy:
I. Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower
of the same plant.
II. Geitonogamy is functionally a type of cross-pollination involving a pollinating agent.
III. Genetically, geitonogamy is similar to autogamy because the pollen grains come from the
same plant.
IV. Geitonogamy brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower
of the same plant.
II. Geitonogamy is functionally a type of cross-pollination involving a pollinating agent.
III. Genetically, geitonogamy is similar to autogamy because the pollen grains come from the
same plant.
IV. Geitonogamy brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
137.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Xenogamy is the only type of pollination that brings genetically different types of
pollen grains to the stigma during pollination.
Reason (R): In xenogamy, pollen grains are transferred from the anther of a flower on one plant
to the stigma of a flower on a different plant of the same species.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Xenogamy is the only type of pollination that brings genetically different types of
pollen grains to the stigma during pollination.
Reason (R): In xenogamy, pollen grains are transferred from the anther of a flower on one plant
to the stigma of a flower on a different plant of the same species.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
138.Consider the following statements comparing the three kinds of pollination:
I. Autogamy and geitonogamy are genetically identical because they do not lead to genetic
recombination from a different parent.
II. Geitonogamy and xenogamy are functionally similar because both require an external
agency/pollinator to transfer pollen.
III. All three types of pollination can occur on a single monoecious plant with bisexual flowers.
IV. Cleistogamous flowers can undergo autogamy, geitonogamy, or xenogamy depending on
pollinator availability.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Autogamy and geitonogamy are genetically identical because they do not lead to genetic
recombination from a different parent.
II. Geitonogamy and xenogamy are functionally similar because both require an external
agency/pollinator to transfer pollen.
III. All three types of pollination can occur on a single monoecious plant with bisexual flowers.
IV. Cleistogamous flowers can undergo autogamy, geitonogamy, or xenogamy depending on
pollinator availability.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
139.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Only a small proportion of plants use abiotic agents for pollination.
Reason (R): Plants use two abiotic agents (wind and water) and one biotic agent (animals) for
pollination, with a majority of plants using biotic agents.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Only a small proportion of plants use abiotic agents for pollination.
Reason (R): Plants use two abiotic agents (wind and water) and one biotic agent (animals) for
pollination, with a majority of plants using biotic agents.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
140.Consider the following statements regarding the dynamics of pollination by abiotic agents
(wind and water):
I. Pollen coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water
pollination.
II. To compensate for uncertainties and associated loss of pollen, flowers produce enormous
amounts of pollen grains.
III. The amount of pollen produced is compared to the number of ovules available for
pollination.
IV. Plants minimize pollen production in abiotic pollination to conserve energetic resources.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
(wind and water):
I. Pollen coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water
pollination.
II. To compensate for uncertainties and associated loss of pollen, flowers produce enormous
amounts of pollen grains.
III. The amount of pollen produced is compared to the number of ovules available for
pollination.
IV. Plants minimize pollen production in abiotic pollination to conserve energetic resources.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
141.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pollen grains of wind-pollinated flowers must be light and non-sticky.
Reason (R): Sticky and heavy pollen grains are easily carried by wind currents over long
distances.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pollen grains of wind-pollinated flowers must be light and non-sticky.
Reason (R): Sticky and heavy pollen grains are easily carried by wind currents over long
distances.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
142.Consider the following statements regarding the floral morphology of wind-pollinated
plants:
I. They often possess well-exposed stamens to facilitate pollen dispersal.
II. They possess large, often-feathery stigmas to easily trap air-borne pollen grains.
III. The stigmas are sticky and enclosed inside the petals to protect them from rain.
IV. Well-exposed stamens ensure pollen is easily dispersed into wind currents.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
plants:
I. They often possess well-exposed stamens to facilitate pollen dispersal.
II. They possess large, often-feathery stigmas to easily trap air-borne pollen grains.
III. The stigmas are sticky and enclosed inside the petals to protect them from rain.
IV. Well-exposed stamens ensure pollen is easily dispersed into wind currents.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
143.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wind-pollinated flowers are typically packed into compact inflorescences.
Reason (R): Wind-pollinated flowers characteristically possess numerous ovules in each ovary
to maximize fertilisation rates per pollen landing.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wind-pollinated flowers are typically packed into compact inflorescences.
Reason (R): Wind-pollinated flowers characteristically possess numerous ovules in each ovary
to maximize fertilisation rates per pollen landing.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
144.Consider the following statements regarding the corn cob as an example of a wind-
pollinated structure:
I. The tassels visible on a corn cob are the stigma and style.
II. These tassels wave in the wind to trap air-borne pollen grains.
III. The tassels represent the well-exposed stamens of the male flowers.
IV. The corn cob demonstrates packing of flowers into an inflorescence.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
pollinated structure:
I. The tassels visible on a corn cob are the stigma and style.
II. These tassels wave in the wind to trap air-borne pollen grains.
III. The tassels represent the well-exposed stamens of the male flowers.
IV. The corn cob demonstrates packing of flowers into an inflorescence.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
145.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wind pollination is a highly specialized and dominant form of pollination among
all angiosperms.
Reason (R): Wind-pollination is quite common in grasses.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wind pollination is a highly specialized and dominant form of pollination among
all angiosperms.
Reason (R): Wind-pollination is quite common in grasses.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
146.Consider the following statements regarding the synchronization required for autogamy
in bisexual chasmogamous flowers:
I. Pollen release must occur precisely when the stigma becomes receptive.
II. Stigma receptivity must precede pollen release by at least 48 hours to ensure viability.
III. The anthers and the stigma must be physically close to each other.
IV. The flowers must be self-incompatible to guarantee autogamy.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
in bisexual chasmogamous flowers:
I. Pollen release must occur precisely when the stigma becomes receptive.
II. Stigma receptivity must precede pollen release by at least 48 hours to ensure viability.
III. The anthers and the stigma must be physically close to each other.
IV. The flowers must be self-incompatible to guarantee autogamy.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
147.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cleistogamy can lead to long-term evolutionary disadvantages for a plant
population.
Reason (R): Cleistogamous flowers are strictly autogamous, which prevents genetic
recombination and can promote inbreeding depression.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cleistogamy can lead to long-term evolutionary disadvantages for a plant
population.
Reason (R): Cleistogamous flowers are strictly autogamous, which prevents genetic
recombination and can promote inbreeding depression.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
148.Consider the following statements regarding the classification of pollination types:
I. Geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination because it requires a pollinating agent.
II. Geitonogamy is genetically self-pollination because the pollen comes from the same
individual plant.
III. Xenogamy is both functionally and genetically a type of cross-pollination.
IV. Autogamy is both functionally and genetically a type of self-pollination.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination because it requires a pollinating agent.
II. Geitonogamy is genetically self-pollination because the pollen comes from the same
individual plant.
III. Xenogamy is both functionally and genetically a type of cross-pollination.
IV. Autogamy is both functionally and genetically a type of self-pollination.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
149.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wind-pollinated flowers generally do not produce nectar or showy, colorful
petals.
Reason (R): Nectar and colorful petals are adaptations to attract biotic pollinators, which are
unnecessary for wind-mediated pollen transport.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wind-pollinated flowers generally do not produce nectar or showy, colorful
petals.
Reason (R): Nectar and colorful petals are adaptations to attract biotic pollinators, which are
unnecessary for wind-mediated pollen transport.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
150.Consider the following floral features:
I. Well-exposed stamens.
II. Enormous pollen production.
III. Single ovule per ovary.
IV. Large, feathery stigmas.
V. Heavy, sticky pollen grains.
Which of these are typical adaptations of wind-pollinated plants?
I. Well-exposed stamens.
II. Enormous pollen production.
III. Single ovule per ovary.
IV. Large, feathery stigmas.
V. Heavy, sticky pollen grains.
Which of these are typical adaptations of wind-pollinated plants?
151.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In the most common type of endosperm development, the PEN undergoes
successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei.
Reason (R): Nuclear divisions are not followed immediately by cell wall formation, creating a
free-nuclear endosperm stage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In the most common type of endosperm development, the PEN undergoes
successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei.
Reason (R): Nuclear divisions are not followed immediately by cell wall formation, creating a
free-nuclear endosperm stage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
152.Consider the following statements regarding the endosperm of a tender coconut:
I. The coconut water from tender coconut is free-nuclear endosperm.
II. The coconut water is made up of thousands of nuclei.
III. The surrounding white kernel is the cellular endosperm.
IV. The number of free nuclei formed before cellularisation is constant in all angiosperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The coconut water from tender coconut is free-nuclear endosperm.
II. The coconut water is made up of thousands of nuclei.
III. The surrounding white kernel is the cellular endosperm.
IV. The number of free nuclei formed before cellularisation is constant in all angiosperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
153.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo before seed
maturation in pea, groundnut, and beans.
Reason (R): In castor and coconut, endosperm persists in the mature seed and is used up during
seed germination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo before seed
maturation in pea, groundnut, and beans.
Reason (R): In castor and coconut, endosperm persists in the mature seed and is used up during
seed germination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
154.Consider the following statements regarding the timing and site of embryo development:
I. Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated.
II. Most zygotes divide only after a certain amount of endosperm is formed.
III. The delayed division of the zygote is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the
developing embryo.
IV. The early stages of embryo development (embryogeny) are completely different in
monocotyledons and dicotyledons.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated.
II. Most zygotes divide only after a certain amount of endosperm is formed.
III. The delayed division of the zygote is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the
developing embryo.
IV. The early stages of embryo development (embryogeny) are completely different in
monocotyledons and dicotyledons.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
155.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The zygote gives rise to the proembryo and subsequently to the globular, heart-
shaped and mature embryo.
Reason (R): Early embryogeny stages follow a strict morphological progression to establish
tissue layers before organogenesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The zygote gives rise to the proembryo and subsequently to the globular, heart-
shaped and mature embryo.
Reason (R): Early embryogeny stages follow a strict morphological progression to establish
tissue layers before organogenesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
156.Consider the following statements regarding the structure of a typical dicotyledonous
embryo:
I. A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons.
II. The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which
terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
III. The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is the hypocotyl, which terminates in
the radicle or root tip.
IV. The root tip is covered with a root cap.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
embryo:
I. A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons.
II. The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which
terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
III. The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is the hypocotyl, which terminates in
the radicle or root tip.
IV. The root tip is covered with a root cap.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
157.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In the grass family, the single cotyledon is called the scutellum and is situated
laterally towards one side of the embryonal axis.
Reason (R): Monocotyledons possess only one cotyledon because their endosperm develops
laterally, suppressing the second cotyledon.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In the grass family, the single cotyledon is called the scutellum and is situated
laterally towards one side of the embryonal axis.
Reason (R): Monocotyledons possess only one cotyledon because their endosperm develops
laterally, suppressing the second cotyledon.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
158.Consider the following statements regarding the anatomical sheath structures in a
monocot (grass) embryo:
I. At its lower end, the embryonal axis has the radicle and root cap enclosed in an
undifferentiated sheath called the coleorrhiza.
II. The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of the scutellum is the
epicotyl.
III. The epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure
called the coleoptile.
IV. Coleoptile is an undifferentiated sheath and coleorrhiza is a hollow foliar structure.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
monocot (grass) embryo:
I. At its lower end, the embryonal axis has the radicle and root cap enclosed in an
undifferentiated sheath called the coleorrhiza.
II. The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of the scutellum is the
epicotyl.
III. The epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure
called the coleoptile.
IV. Coleoptile is an undifferentiated sheath and coleorrhiza is a hollow foliar structure.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
159.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In angiosperms, the seed is the final product of sexual reproduction.
Reason (R): A seed typically consists of seed coat(s), cotyledon(s) and an embryo axis, and is
formed inside the fruit.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In angiosperms, the seed is the final product of sexual reproduction.
Reason (R): A seed typically consists of seed coat(s), cotyledon(s) and an embryo axis, and is
formed inside the fruit.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
160.Consider the following statements regarding the presence of endosperm in mature seeds:
I. Non-albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm as it is completely consumed during
embryo development.
II. Examples of non-albuminous seeds are pea and groundnut.
III. Albuminous seeds retain a part of the endosperm as it is not completely used up during
embryo development.
IV. Examples of albuminous seeds are wheat, maize, barley, and castor.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Non-albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm as it is completely consumed during
embryo development.
II. Examples of non-albuminous seeds are pea and groundnut.
III. Albuminous seeds retain a part of the endosperm as it is not completely used up during
embryo development.
IV. Examples of albuminous seeds are wheat, maize, barley, and castor.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
161.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The distribution of some bryophytes and pteridophytes in nature is
geographically limited.
Reason (R): Water is a regular mode of transport for the male gametes and fertilisation in these
lower plant groups.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The distribution of some bryophytes and pteridophytes in nature is
geographically limited.
Reason (R): Water is a regular mode of transport for the male gametes and fertilisation in these
lower plant groups.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
162.Consider the following statements regarding water-pollinated plants:
I. Vallisneria and Hydrilla are fresh water plants that exhibit water pollination.
II. Zostera is a marine seagrass that is pollinated by water.
III. Water pollination is very common in angiosperms and is found in over 300 genera.
IV. All aquatic plants, including water hyacinth and water lily, are pollinated by water.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Vallisneria and Hydrilla are fresh water plants that exhibit water pollination.
II. Zostera is a marine seagrass that is pollinated by water.
III. Water pollination is very common in angiosperms and is found in over 300 genera.
IV. All aquatic plants, including water hyacinth and water lily, are pollinated by water.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
163.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Flowers of water hyacinth and water lily are pollinated by insects or wind rather
than water currents.
Reason (R): In water hyacinth and water lily, the female flowers remain completely submerged
under water where pollen grains are released.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Flowers of water hyacinth and water lily are pollinated by insects or wind rather
than water currents.
Reason (R): In water hyacinth and water lily, the female flowers remain completely submerged
under water where pollen grains are released.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
164.Consider the following statements regarding the pollination mechanism in Vallisneria:
I. The female flower reaches the surface of water by a long stalk.
II. The male flowers or pollen grains are released onto the surface of water.
III. The male flowers and pollen grains are carried passively by water currents.
IV. The female flowers remain submerged and pollen grains are released inside the water.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The female flower reaches the surface of water by a long stalk.
II. The male flowers or pollen grains are released onto the surface of water.
III. The male flowers and pollen grains are carried passively by water currents.
IV. The female flowers remain submerged and pollen grains are released inside the water.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
165.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In seagrasses, pollination occurs below the surface of the water.
Reason (R): The female flowers of seagrasses remain submerged in water, and pollen grains are
released inside the water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In seagrasses, pollination occurs below the surface of the water.
Reason (R): The female flowers of seagrasses remain submerged in water, and pollen grains are
released inside the water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
166.Consider the following statements regarding the pollen grains of water-pollinated
seagrasses:
I. The pollen grains are long and ribbon-like.
II. The pollen grains are carried actively by flagellar movement inside the water.
III. The pollen grains are carried passively inside the water currents.
IV. The pollen grains are heavy, spherical, and sink rapidly to the bottom locule.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
seagrasses:
I. The pollen grains are long and ribbon-like.
II. The pollen grains are carried actively by flagellar movement inside the water.
III. The pollen grains are carried passively inside the water currents.
IV. The pollen grains are heavy, spherical, and sink rapidly to the bottom locule.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
167.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In most water-pollinated species, pollen grains do not get wet despite being
submerged or floating in water.
Reason (R): The exine of water-pollinated plants is composed of a thick, impenetrable layer of
sporopollenin that prevents water entry.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In most water-pollinated species, pollen grains do not get wet despite being
submerged or floating in water.
Reason (R): The exine of water-pollinated plants is composed of a thick, impenetrable layer of
sporopollenin that prevents water entry.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
168.Consider the following statements regarding the floral characteristics of wind and water-
pollinated plants:
I. They are not very colourful.
II. They do not produce nectar.
III. They produce large amounts of sweet-scented essential oils to attract nocturnal visitors.
IV. The lack of colour and nectar is an evolutionary adaptation because they do not need to
attract animal vectors.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
pollinated plants:
I. They are not very colourful.
II. They do not produce nectar.
III. They produce large amounts of sweet-scented essential oils to attract nocturnal visitors.
IV. The lack of colour and nectar is an evolutionary adaptation because they do not need to
attract animal vectors.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
169.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Among the animal pollinators, insects are the dominant biotic agents, with bees
being the single most common group.
Reason (R): Bees are the only animal group capable of performing cross-pollination in
angiosperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Among the animal pollinators, insects are the dominant biotic agents, with bees
being the single most common group.
Reason (R): Bees are the only animal group capable of performing cross-pollination in
angiosperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
170.Consider the following statements regarding unusual or larger animal pollinators
reported in some plant species:
I. Primates like lemurs have been reported as pollinators.
II. Arboreal (tree-dwelling) rodents can act as pollinators.
III. Reptiles, including the gecko lizard and garden lizard, have been reported as pollinators.
IV. Aquatic mammals like dolphins and seals are known to pollinate submerged seagrasses.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
reported in some plant species:
I. Primates like lemurs have been reported as pollinators.
II. Arboreal (tree-dwelling) rodents can act as pollinators.
III. Reptiles, including the gecko lizard and garden lizard, have been reported as pollinators.
IV. Aquatic mammals like dolphins and seals are known to pollinate submerged seagrasses.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
171.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): When the flowers of insect-pollinated plants are small, they are clustered into an
inflorescence.
Reason (R): Clustering small flowers into an inflorescence makes them highly conspicuous to
animal vectors.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): When the flowers of insect-pollinated plants are small, they are clustered into an
inflorescence.
Reason (R): Clustering small flowers into an inflorescence makes them highly conspicuous to
animal vectors.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
172.Consider the following statements regarding flowers pollinated by flies and beetles:
I. They secrete foul odours to attract these insect groups.
II. They are characterized by sweet, honey-like fragrances that mimic nectar rewards.
III. They are generally wind-pollinated during the early morning hours.
IV. Flies and beetles are attracted to foul-smelling decomposing organic matter, which these
flowers mimic.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. They secrete foul odours to attract these insect groups.
II. They are characterized by sweet, honey-like fragrances that mimic nectar rewards.
III. They are generally wind-pollinated during the early morning hours.
IV. Flies and beetles are attracted to foul-smelling decomposing organic matter, which these
flowers mimic.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
173.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In animal-pollinated flowers, the pollen grains are generally sticky.
Reason (R): The stickiness of pollen grains is due to a thick, smooth layer of sporopollenin that
reacts with the animal's epidermal proteins.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In animal-pollinated flowers, the pollen grains are generally sticky.
Reason (R): The stickiness of pollen grains is due to a thick, smooth layer of sporopollenin that
reacts with the animal's epidermal proteins.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
174.Consider the following statements regarding the flower of Amorphophallus:
I. It represents one of the tallest flowers, reaching about 6 feet in height.
II. The floral reward it provides is a safe place to lay eggs.
III. The moth deposits its eggs in the style of the Amorphophallus flower.
IV. The plant is a common floating hydrophyte found in fresh water lakes.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. It represents one of the tallest flowers, reaching about 6 feet in height.
II. The floral reward it provides is a safe place to lay eggs.
III. The moth deposits its eggs in the style of the Amorphophallus flower.
IV. The plant is a common floating hydrophyte found in fresh water lakes.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
175.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Neither the Yucca plant nor the species of moth can complete their life cycles
without each other.
Reason (R): The moth ensures pollination of the Yucca flower, while the Yucca flower provides a
site for the development of moth larvae and seeds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Neither the Yucca plant nor the species of moth can complete their life cycles
without each other.
Reason (R): The moth ensures pollination of the Yucca flower, while the Yucca flower provides a
site for the development of moth larvae and seeds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
176.Consider the following statements regarding the mechanics of the Yucca-moth
relationship:
I. The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary.
II. The flower, in turn, gets pollinated by the moth.
III. The moth deposits its eggs inside the style, obstructing the pollen tube path.
IV. The moth larvae feed exclusively on the nectar secreted by the thalamus.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
relationship:
I. The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary.
II. The flower, in turn, gets pollinated by the moth.
III. The moth deposits its eggs inside the style, obstructing the pollen tube path.
IV. The moth larvae feed exclusively on the nectar secreted by the thalamus.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
177.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The larvae of the Yucca moth emerge from the eggs exactly as the seeds of the
Yucca plant start developing.
Reason (R): Developing seeds provide the primary source of nutrition for the emerging moth
larvae.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The larvae of the Yucca moth emerge from the eggs exactly as the seeds of the
Yucca plant start developing.
Reason (R): Developing seeds provide the primary source of nutrition for the emerging moth
larvae.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
178.Consider the following statements regarding floral visitors that act as pollen or nectar
robbers:
I. They consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination.
II. They represent a parasitic relationship rather than a mutualistic one.
III. All insect visitors that land on the anthers and stigma are classified as robbers.
IV. Pollen/nectar robbers are protected by a mucilaginous layer on the flower.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
robbers:
I. They consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination.
II. They represent a parasitic relationship rather than a mutualistic one.
III. All insect visitors that land on the anthers and stigma are classified as robbers.
IV. Pollen/nectar robbers are protected by a mucilaginous layer on the flower.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
179.Consider the following statements regarding the pollination methods of different aquatic
plants:
I. Vallisneria shows surface water pollination (epihydrophily).
II. Hydrilla shows underwater submerged pollination.
III. Zostera female flowers remain submerged and are pollinated underwater.
IV. Water lily flowers emerge above the water surface and are pollinated by insects or wind.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
plants:
I. Vallisneria shows surface water pollination (epihydrophily).
II. Hydrilla shows underwater submerged pollination.
III. Zostera female flowers remain submerged and are pollinated underwater.
IV. Water lily flowers emerge above the water surface and are pollinated by insects or wind.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
180.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In Amorphophallus and Yucca, the plant provides a safe site for egg-laying as a
floral reward.
Reason (R): In both species, the larvae of the pollinator feed exclusively on the floral nectar
rather than developing seeds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In Amorphophallus and Yucca, the plant provides a safe site for egg-laying as a
floral reward.
Reason (R): In both species, the larvae of the pollinator feed exclusively on the floral nectar
rather than developing seeds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
181.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In black pepper and beet, the mature seed contains a persistent nucellus called
perisperm.
Reason (R): The nucellus is a diploid maternal tissue containing abundant reserve food
materials that persist when endosperm is insufficient.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In black pepper and beet, the mature seed contains a persistent nucellus called
perisperm.
Reason (R): The nucellus is a diploid maternal tissue containing abundant reserve food
materials that persist when endosperm is insufficient.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
182.Consider the following statements regarding the seed coat and micropyle of a mature
seed:
I. Integuments of ovules harden as tough protective seed coats.
II. The micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat.
III. The micropyle pore facilitates the entry of oxygen and water into the seed during
germination.
IV. The micropyle pore gets completely sealed with sporopollenin as the seed matures to prevent
water entry.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
seed:
I. Integuments of ovules harden as tough protective seed coats.
II. The micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat.
III. The micropyle pore facilitates the entry of oxygen and water into the seed during
germination.
IV. The micropyle pore gets completely sealed with sporopollenin as the seed matures to prevent
water entry.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
183.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): As the seed matures, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry,
containing 10-15 per cent moisture by mass.
Reason (R): Under dry conditions, the embryo enters a state of metabolic inactivity called
dormancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): As the seed matures, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry,
containing 10-15 per cent moisture by mass.
Reason (R): Under dry conditions, the embryo enters a state of metabolic inactivity called
dormancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
184.Consider the following statements regarding the transformation of flower parts into fruits
and seeds:
I. As ovules mature into seeds, the ovary develops into a fruit.
II. The transformation of ovules into seeds and ovary into fruit proceeds simultaneously.
III. The wall of the ovary develops into the wall of the fruit called the pericarp.
IV. Ovary wall develops into seed coat, while the integument develops into pericarp.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
and seeds:
I. As ovules mature into seeds, the ovary develops into a fruit.
II. The transformation of ovules into seeds and ovary into fruit proceeds simultaneously.
III. The wall of the ovary develops into the wall of the fruit called the pericarp.
IV. Ovary wall develops into seed coat, while the integument develops into pericarp.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
185.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Apple, strawberry and cashew are classified as false fruits.
Reason (R): In these species, the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation along with the
ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Apple, strawberry and cashew are classified as false fruits.
Reason (R): In these species, the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation along with the
ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
186.Consider the following statements regarding parthenocarpic fruits:
I. Parthenocarpic fruits develop without fertilisation.
II. Banana is a classic example of a parthenocarpic fruit.
III. Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones.
IV. Parthenocarpic fruits are highly seeded to ensure high reproduction rates.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Parthenocarpic fruits develop without fertilisation.
II. Banana is a classic example of a parthenocarpic fruit.
III. Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones.
IV. Parthenocarpic fruits are highly seeded to ensure high reproduction rates.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
187.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Seed formation in angiosperms is more dependable than in bryophytes and
pteridophytes.
Reason (R): Reproductive processes such as pollination and fertilisation in angiosperms are
completely independent of water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Seed formation in angiosperms is more dependable than in bryophytes and
pteridophytes.
Reason (R): Reproductive processes such as pollination and fertilisation in angiosperms are
completely independent of water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
188.Consider the following statements regarding the adaptive strategies of seeds:
I. Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats to help species colonise.
II. Young seedlings are nourished by sufficient food reserves of the seed until they are capable of
photosynthesis.
III. The hard seed coat provides protection to the young embryo.
IV. Being products of asexual reproduction, seeds generate clones with zero genetic variation.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats to help species colonise.
II. Young seedlings are nourished by sufficient food reserves of the seed until they are capable of
photosynthesis.
III. The hard seed coat provides protection to the young embryo.
IV. Being products of asexual reproduction, seeds generate clones with zero genetic variation.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
189.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Dehydration and dormancy of mature seeds are crucial for the development of
human agriculture.
Reason (R): Dehydration and dormancy allow seeds to be stored as food throughout the year
and used to raise crops in the next season.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Dehydration and dormancy of mature seeds are crucial for the development of
human agriculture.
Reason (R): Dehydration and dormancy allow seeds to be stored as food throughout the year
and used to raise crops in the next season.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
190.Consider the following statements regarding the record-breaking viability of ancient
seeds:
I. The oldest viable seed is that of a lupine, Lupinus arcticus, excavated from the Arctic Tundra.
II. The seed of Lupinus arcticus germinated and flowered after an estimated record of 10,000
years of dormancy.
III. A recent record of a 2000-year-old viable seed is of the date palm, Phoenix dactylifera.
IV. The viable seed of Phoenix dactylifera was discovered during archaeological excavation at
King Herod's palace near the Dead Sea.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
seeds:
I. The oldest viable seed is that of a lupine, Lupinus arcticus, excavated from the Arctic Tundra.
II. The seed of Lupinus arcticus germinated and flowered after an estimated record of 10,000
years of dormancy.
III. A recent record of a 2000-year-old viable seed is of the date palm, Phoenix dactylifera.
IV. The viable seed of Phoenix dactylifera was discovered during archaeological excavation at
King Herod's palace near the Dead Sea.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
191.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Continued self-pollination in hermaphrodite flowers leads to a progressive
reduction in vigor and fertility called inbreeding depression.
Reason (R): Inbreeding increases homozygosity, which exposes harmful recessive mutations to
natural selection.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Continued self-pollination in hermaphrodite flowers leads to a progressive
reduction in vigor and fertility called inbreeding depression.
Reason (R): Inbreeding increases homozygosity, which exposes harmful recessive mutations to
natural selection.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
192.Consider the following statements regarding the outbreeding devices that prevent
autogamy in flowering plants:
I. In some species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised.
II. The pollen may be released before the stigma becomes receptive (protandry).
III. The stigma may become receptive much before the release of pollen (protogyny).
IV. In all hermaphrodite species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are strictly locked to
occur at the exact same millisecond.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
autogamy in flowering plants:
I. In some species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised.
II. The pollen may be released before the stigma becomes receptive (protandry).
III. The stigma may become receptive much before the release of pollen (protogyny).
IV. In all hermaphrodite species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are strictly locked to
occur at the exact same millisecond.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
193.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Placing the anther and stigma at different spatial positions within a flower
prevents autogamy.
Reason (R): Spatial separation ensures that pollen from the anther cannot physically come in
contact with the stigma of the same flower.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Placing the anther and stigma at different spatial positions within a flower
prevents autogamy.
Reason (R): Spatial separation ensures that pollen from the anther cannot physically come in
contact with the stigma of the same flower.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
194.Consider the following statements regarding self-incompatibility in plants:
I. It is a genetic mechanism to prevent self-pollination.
II. It prevents pollen from fertilising the ovules of the same flower or other flowers of the same
plant.
III. It operates by inhibiting pollen germination on the stigma.
IV. It operates by inhibiting pollen tube growth in the style/pistil.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. It is a genetic mechanism to prevent self-pollination.
II. It prevents pollen from fertilising the ovules of the same flower or other flowers of the same
plant.
III. It operates by inhibiting pollen germination on the stigma.
IV. It operates by inhibiting pollen tube growth in the style/pistil.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
195.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In castor and maize, autogamy is prevented but geitonogamy is not prevented.
Reason (R): Castor and maize are monoecious plants, bearing both male and female unisexual
flowers on the same individual plant.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In castor and maize, autogamy is prevented but geitonogamy is not prevented.
Reason (R): Castor and maize are monoecious plants, bearing both male and female unisexual
flowers on the same individual plant.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
196.Consider the following statements regarding dioecious plants like papaya:
I. Male and female flowers are present on different plants.
II. Each individual plant is either male or female.
III. The dioecious condition prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
IV. The dioecious condition prevents autogamy but does not prevent geitonogamy.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Male and female flowers are present on different plants.
II. Each individual plant is either male or female.
III. The dioecious condition prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
IV. The dioecious condition prevents autogamy but does not prevent geitonogamy.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
197.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Landing of pollen on a receptive stigma does not guarantee that fertilization will
occur.
Reason (R): The pistil lacks any biochemical mechanism to recognize compatible pollen,
accepting all pollen grains indiscriminately.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Landing of pollen on a receptive stigma does not guarantee that fertilization will
occur.
Reason (R): The pistil lacks any biochemical mechanism to recognize compatible pollen,
accepting all pollen grains indiscriminately.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
198.Consider the following statements regarding the dialogue between pollen and pistil:
I. The ability of the pistil to recognize pollen is mediated by chemical components.
II. The dialogue involves interactions between chemical components of the pollen and those of
the pistil.
III. The dialogue is a purely physical pressure-sensitive response triggered by pollen weight.
IV. Botanists have identified some of the chemical components and interactions involved in this
dialogue.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The ability of the pistil to recognize pollen is mediated by chemical components.
II. The dialogue involves interactions between chemical components of the pollen and those of
the pistil.
III. The dialogue is a purely physical pressure-sensitive response triggered by pollen weight.
IV. Botanists have identified some of the chemical components and interactions involved in this
dialogue.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
199.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): When incompatible pollen lands on the stigma, the pistil rejects it, preventing
fertilization.
Reason (R): Rejection is achieved by either preventing pollen germination on the stigma or
inhibiting pollen tube growth in the style.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): When incompatible pollen lands on the stigma, the pistil rejects it, preventing
fertilization.
Reason (R): Rejection is achieved by either preventing pollen germination on the stigma or
inhibiting pollen tube growth in the style.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
200.Consider the following statements regarding the germination and path of the pollen tube:
I. The pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the germ
pores.
II. The contents of the pollen grain move into the pollen tube.
III. The pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma and style to reach the ovary.
IV. The pollen tube grows along the outer surface of the style, completely bypassing internal
tissues.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. The pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the germ
pores.
II. The contents of the pollen grain move into the pollen tube.
III. The pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma and style to reach the ovary.
IV. The pollen tube grows along the outer surface of the style, completely bypassing internal
tissues.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
201.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In plants that shed pollen at the 2-celled stage, the pollen tube carries two male
gametes as it grows through the style.
Reason (R): In these plants, the generative cell divides mitotically to form two male gametes
during the growth of the pollen tube in the stigma.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In plants that shed pollen at the 2-celled stage, the pollen tube carries two male
gametes as it grows through the style.
Reason (R): In these plants, the generative cell divides mitotically to form two male gametes
during the growth of the pollen tube in the stigma.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
202.Consider the following statements regarding plants that shed pollen in the 3-celled
condition:
I. The pollen grains already possess two male gametes at the time of release from the anther.
II. The pollen tubes carry the two male gametes from the very beginning of germination.
III. The generative cell divides inside the style to form the third male gamete.
IV. The vegetative cell divides to produce two additional vegetative gametes in the ovary.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
condition:
I. The pollen grains already possess two male gametes at the time of release from the anther.
II. The pollen tubes carry the two male gametes from the very beginning of germination.
III. The generative cell divides inside the style to form the third male gamete.
IV. The vegetative cell divides to produce two additional vegetative gametes in the ovary.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
203.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The pollen tube enters the embryo sac through one of the synergids rather than
directly penetrating the egg cell.
Reason (R): The filiform apparatus present at the micropylar part of the synergids guides the
entry of the pollen tube.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The pollen tube enters the embryo sac through one of the synergids rather than
directly penetrating the egg cell.
Reason (R): The filiform apparatus present at the micropylar part of the synergids guides the
entry of the pollen tube.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
204.Consider the following statements regarding the chronological scope of pollen-pistil
interaction:
I. It begins when pollen grains are deposited on the receptive stigma.
II. It ends when the pollen tube enters the ovule.
III. It includes post-fertilisation embryo and endosperm development stages.
IV. It is a static, non-chemical physical docking process.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
interaction:
I. It begins when pollen grains are deposited on the receptive stigma.
II. It ends when the pollen tube enters the ovule.
III. It includes post-fertilisation embryo and endosperm development stages.
IV. It is a static, non-chemical physical docking process.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
205.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Plant breeders study pollen-pistil interactions to manipulate incompatible
crossings.
Reason (R): Overcoming incompatibility barriers allows breeders to cross distant species and
genera to obtain desired hybrids.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Plant breeders study pollen-pistil interactions to manipulate incompatible
crossings.
Reason (R): Overcoming incompatibility barriers allows breeders to cross distant species and
genera to obtain desired hybrids.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
206.Consider the following statements regarding artificial hybridization:
I. It is a major approach of crop improvement programmes.
II. It involves crossing different species and sometimes even different genera.
III. It aims to combine desirable characters to produce commercially superior varieties.
IV. It relies entirely on passive wind pollination without any human intervention.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. It is a major approach of crop improvement programmes.
II. It involves crossing different species and sometimes even different genera.
III. It aims to combine desirable characters to produce commercially superior varieties.
IV. It relies entirely on passive wind pollination without any human intervention.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
207.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In artificial hybridization of bisexual flowers, emasculation must be performed
before the anthers dehisce.
Reason (R): Removing the anthers early prevents self-pollination (contamination) of the stigma
within the same flower bud.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In artificial hybridization of bisexual flowers, emasculation must be performed
before the anthers dehisce.
Reason (R): Removing the anthers early prevents self-pollination (contamination) of the stigma
within the same flower bud.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
208.Consider the following statements regarding the bagging process in hybridization:
I. Emasculated flowers must be covered with a bag of suitable size.
II. The bag is generally made up of butter paper.
III. The main purpose of bagging is to prevent contamination of the stigma with unwanted
pollen.
IV. The bag must be made of thick black plastic to prevent light from reaching the stigma.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Emasculated flowers must be covered with a bag of suitable size.
II. The bag is generally made up of butter paper.
III. The main purpose of bagging is to prevent contamination of the stigma with unwanted
pollen.
IV. The bag must be made of thick black plastic to prevent light from reaching the stigma.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
209.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): After dusting the desired mature pollen onto the receptive stigma of a bagged
flower, the flower must be rebagged.
Reason (R): Rebagging is necessary to prevent any subsequent contamination by other airborne
or insect-borne pollen while fruits develop.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): After dusting the desired mature pollen onto the receptive stigma of a bagged
flower, the flower must be rebagged.
Reason (R): Rebagging is necessary to prevent any subsequent contamination by other airborne
or insect-borne pollen while fruits develop.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
210.Consider the following statements regarding the steps of artificial hybridization when the
female parent produces unisexual flowers:
I. Emasculation is completely unnecessary in this procedure.
II. The female flower buds are bagged before the flowers open.
III. Pollination is carried out using desired pollen when the stigma becomes receptive.
IV. After pollination, the flowers are left open without rebagging.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
female parent produces unisexual flowers:
I. Emasculation is completely unnecessary in this procedure.
II. The female flower buds are bagged before the flowers open.
III. Pollination is carried out using desired pollen when the stigma becomes receptive.
IV. After pollination, the flowers are left open without rebagging.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
211.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Orchid fruits are a category where each fruit contains thousands of tiny seeds.
Reason (R): Similar is the case of high seed production in the fruits of parasitic species such as
Orobanche and Striga.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Orchid fruits are a category where each fruit contains thousands of tiny seeds.
Reason (R): Similar is the case of high seed production in the fruits of parasitic species such as
Orobanche and Striga.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
212.Consider the following statements regarding the seed and biomass of the genus Ficus:
I. Ficus develops from a very tiny seed to form a massive tree.
II. Each Ficus tree produces billions of seeds over its lifespan.
III. Ficus represents a classic example where a tiny seed structure produces a huge biomass over
the years.
IV. Ficus seeds are albuminous and contain antifreeze proteins to survive cold climates.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Ficus develops from a very tiny seed to form a massive tree.
II. Each Ficus tree produces billions of seeds over its lifespan.
III. Ficus represents a classic example where a tiny seed structure produces a huge biomass over
the years.
IV. Ficus seeds are albuminous and contain antifreeze proteins to survive cold climates.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
213.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
Reason (R): Apomixis results in the production of seeds without fertilisation in some species of
Asteraceae and grasses.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
Reason (R): Apomixis results in the production of seeds without fertilisation in some species of
Asteraceae and grasses.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
214.Consider the following statements regarding the pathways of apomictic seed
development:
I. In some species, the diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division.
II. The diploid egg cell develops into the embryo without fertilisation.
III. In Citrus and Mango varieties, nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac start dividing and
protrude into the embryo sac.
IV. The protruding diploid nucellar cells develop into embryos inside the embryo sac.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
development:
I. In some species, the diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division.
II. The diploid egg cell develops into the embryo without fertilisation.
III. In Citrus and Mango varieties, nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac start dividing and
protrude into the embryo sac.
IV. The protruding diploid nucellar cells develop into embryos inside the embryo sac.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
215.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred to as polyembryony.
Reason (R): In Citrus and Mango, nucellar cells form multiple vegetative embryos that sit
alongside the zygotic embryo inside the embryo sac.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred to as polyembryony.
Reason (R): In Citrus and Mango, nucellar cells form multiple vegetative embryos that sit
alongside the zygotic embryo inside the embryo sac.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
216.Consider the following statements regarding the genetic nature of apomictic embryos:
I. Apomictic embryos derived from nucellar cells are genetically identical to the parent plant.
II. Apomictic embryos can be called clones.
III. Apomixis maintains maternal genotype without any meiotic segregation or paternal
contribution.
IV. Apomictic embryos are genetically diverse due to double fertilization fusions.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Apomictic embryos derived from nucellar cells are genetically identical to the parent plant.
II. Apomictic embryos can be called clones.
III. Apomixis maintains maternal genotype without any meiotic segregation or paternal
contribution.
IV. Apomictic embryos are genetically diverse due to double fertilization fusions.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
217.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): If the seeds collected from hybrid crops are sown, the plants in the progeny do
not maintain hybrid characters.
Reason (R): Hybrid characters segregate in the progeny of selfed hybrids due to meiotic
chromosome recombination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): If the seeds collected from hybrid crops are sown, the plants in the progeny do
not maintain hybrid characters.
Reason (R): Hybrid characters segregate in the progeny of selfed hybrids due to meiotic
chromosome recombination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
218.Consider the following statements regarding the commercial application of apomixis in
the hybrid seed industry:
I. Production of hybrid seeds is costly, making them expensive for farmers.
II. If hybrids are made into apomicts, there is no segregation of characters in the hybrid
progeny.
III. If apomictic hybrids are developed, farmers can keep using hybrid seeds to raise new crops
year after year without buying new seeds.
IV. Active research is going on to understand the genetics of apomixis and transfer apomictic
genes into hybrid varieties.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
the hybrid seed industry:
I. Production of hybrid seeds is costly, making them expensive for farmers.
II. If hybrids are made into apomicts, there is no segregation of characters in the hybrid
progeny.
III. If apomictic hybrids are developed, farmers can keep using hybrid seeds to raise new crops
year after year without buying new seeds.
IV. Active research is going on to understand the genetics of apomixis and transfer apomictic
genes into hybrid varieties.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
219.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A cell of the archesporium differentiates into the megaspore mother cell in the
ovule.
Reason (R): The archesporium differentiates in the central nucellus tissue of the ovule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A cell of the archesporium differentiates into the megaspore mother cell in the
ovule.
Reason (R): The archesporium differentiates in the central nucellus tissue of the ovule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
220.Consider the following statements regarding the summary descriptors of the anther and
ovule:
I. A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed, dithecous, and tetrasporangiate.
II. Pollen grains develop inside the microsporangia.
III. Four wall layers (epidermis, endothecium, middle layers, tapetum) surround the
microsporangium.
IV. Individual microspores mature into pollen grains representing the female gametophytic
generation.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
ovule:
I. A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed, dithecous, and tetrasporangiate.
II. Pollen grains develop inside the microsporangia.
III. Four wall layers (epidermis, endothecium, middle layers, tapetum) surround the
microsporangium.
IV. Individual microspores mature into pollen grains representing the female gametophytic
generation.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
221.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Double fertilisation involves two types of nuclear fusions occurring within a
single embryo sac of an angiosperm.
Reason (R): The primary endosperm cell (PEC) undergoes syngamy, while the diploid zygote is
formed as a product of triple fusion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Double fertilisation involves two types of nuclear fusions occurring within a
single embryo sac of an angiosperm.
Reason (R): The primary endosperm cell (PEC) undergoes syngamy, while the diploid zygote is
formed as a product of triple fusion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
222.Consider the following statements regarding the events and structures involved in double
fertilisation:
I. The pollen tube releases two male gametes into the cytoplasm of one of the synergids.
II. Triple fusion involves the fusion of three haploid nuclei: one male gamete and two polar
nuclei.
III. The central cell, after triple fusion, becomes the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) which
later develops into the zygote.
IV. Double fertilisation is a phenomenon unique to flowering plants.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
fertilisation:
I. The pollen tube releases two male gametes into the cytoplasm of one of the synergids.
II. Triple fusion involves the fusion of three haploid nuclei: one male gamete and two polar
nuclei.
III. The central cell, after triple fusion, becomes the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) which
later develops into the zygote.
IV. Double fertilisation is a phenomenon unique to flowering plants.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
223.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): During post-fertilisation development in angiosperms, the development of
endosperm always precedes the development of the embryo.
Reason (R): Most zygotes divide only after a certain amount of endosperm is formed to ensure
an assured nutrition supply to the developing embryo.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): During post-fertilisation development in angiosperms, the development of
endosperm always precedes the development of the embryo.
Reason (R): Most zygotes divide only after a certain amount of endosperm is formed to ensure
an assured nutrition supply to the developing embryo.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
224.Consider the following statements regarding the endosperm types and their
representation in coconut:
I. In the most common type of endosperm development, the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN)
undergoes successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei.
II. The stage of endosperm development prior to cell wall formation is called free-nuclear
endosperm.
III. In a tender coconut, the surrounding white kernel represents the free-nuclear endosperm
made of thousands of nuclei.
IV. The coconut water from tender coconut is the cellular endosperm.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
representation in coconut:
I. In the most common type of endosperm development, the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN)
undergoes successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei.
II. The stage of endosperm development prior to cell wall formation is called free-nuclear
endosperm.
III. In a tender coconut, the surrounding white kernel represents the free-nuclear endosperm
made of thousands of nuclei.
IV. The coconut water from tender coconut is the cellular endosperm.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
225.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The early stages of embryo development (embryogeny) are fundamentally
different in monocotyledons and dicotyledons due to differences in cotyledon number.
Reason (R): In a dicotyledonous embryo, the zygote gives rise to the proembryo, and
subsequently to the globular, heart-shaped, and mature embryo stages.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The early stages of embryo development (embryogeny) are fundamentally
different in monocotyledons and dicotyledons due to differences in cotyledon number.
Reason (R): In a dicotyledonous embryo, the zygote gives rise to the proembryo, and
subsequently to the globular, heart-shaped, and mature embryo stages.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
226.Consider the following statements regarding the developmental stages of the embryo in
dicots:
I. The zygote undergoes initial divisions to form the proembryo at the micropylar end of the
embryo sac.
II. The globular embryo stage directly precedes the proembryo stage.
III. The heart-shaped stage represents a transition between the globular stage and the mature
embryo.
IV. Most zygotes divide immediately after fertilisation before any endosperm is formed.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
dicots:
I. The zygote undergoes initial divisions to form the proembryo at the micropylar end of the
embryo sac.
II. The globular embryo stage directly precedes the proembryo stage.
III. The heart-shaped stage represents a transition between the globular stage and the mature
embryo.
IV. Most zygotes divide immediately after fertilisation before any endosperm is formed.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
227.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons in a dicot embryo
is the epicotyl, which terminates in the plumule.
Reason (R): The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is the hypocotyl, which
terminates at its lower end in the radicle covered with a root cap.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons in a dicot embryo
is the epicotyl, which terminates in the plumule.
Reason (R): The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is the hypocotyl, which
terminates at its lower end in the radicle covered with a root cap.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
228.Consider the following statements regarding the structures of monocotyledonous
embryos:
I. In the grass family, the single cotyledon is called the scutellum and is situated laterally
towards one side of the embryonal axis.
II. The radicle and root cap are enclosed in a differentiated sheath called the coleoptile.
III. The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of the scutellum is the
epicotyl.
IV. The epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure
called the coleoptile.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
embryos:
I. In the grass family, the single cotyledon is called the scutellum and is situated laterally
towards one side of the embryonal axis.
II. The radicle and root cap are enclosed in a differentiated sheath called the coleoptile.
III. The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of the scutellum is the
epicotyl.
IV. The epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure
called the coleoptile.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
229.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wheat, maize, barley, and castor are classified as albuminous seeds.
Reason (R): Albuminous seeds retain a part of the endosperm because the endosperm is not
completely consumed during embryo development.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wheat, maize, barley, and castor are classified as albuminous seeds.
Reason (R): Albuminous seeds retain a part of the endosperm because the endosperm is not
completely consumed during embryo development.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
230.Consider the following statements regarding seed types and their internal structures:
I. Non-albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm as it is completely consumed during
embryo development.
II. Pea and groundnut are classic examples of non-albuminous seeds.
III. In black pepper and beet, remnants of the endosperm persist to form the perisperm.
IV. Perisperm is defined as the residual, persistent nucellus.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Non-albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm as it is completely consumed during
embryo development.
II. Pea and groundnut are classic examples of non-albuminous seeds.
III. In black pepper and beet, remnants of the endosperm persist to form the perisperm.
IV. Perisperm is defined as the residual, persistent nucellus.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
231.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The micropyle remains as a small pore in the tough seed coat of mature seeds.
Reason (R): The persistence of the micropyle facilitates the entry of oxygen and water into the
seed during germination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The micropyle remains as a small pore in the tough seed coat of mature seeds.
Reason (R): The persistence of the micropyle facilitates the entry of oxygen and water into the
seed during germination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
232.Consider the following statements regarding the physical and physiological changes
during seed maturation:
I. As the seed matures, its water content is reduced, and it becomes dry, containing 10-15 per
cent moisture by mass.
II. The general metabolic activity of the embryo increases to prepare it for immediate
germination.
III. Favourable conditions for germination include adequate moisture, oxygen, and suitable
temperature.
IV. The protective seed coats are formed by the hardening of the ovary walls.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
during seed maturation:
I. As the seed matures, its water content is reduced, and it becomes dry, containing 10-15 per
cent moisture by mass.
II. The general metabolic activity of the embryo increases to prepare it for immediate
germination.
III. Favourable conditions for germination include adequate moisture, oxygen, and suitable
temperature.
IV. The protective seed coats are formed by the hardening of the ovary walls.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
233.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The embryo inside a mature dry seed can enter a state of inactivity called
dormancy.
Reason (R): Seeds will fail to germinate even if adequate moisture, oxygen, and suitable
temperature are provided during dormancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The embryo inside a mature dry seed can enter a state of inactivity called
dormancy.
Reason (R): Seeds will fail to germinate even if adequate moisture, oxygen, and suitable
temperature are provided during dormancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
234.Consider the following statements regarding the records of very old yet viable seeds
according to the NCERT text:
I. The oldest viable seed record is of a lupine, Lupinus arcticus, excavated from the Arctic
Tundra.
II. Lupinus arcticus germinated and flowered after an estimated 10,000 years of dormancy.
III. A recent record of a 2,000-year-old viable seed is of the date palm, Phoenix dactylifera.
IV. The viable seed of Phoenix dactylifera was discovered during archaeological excavation at
King Herod's palace near the Dead Sea.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
according to the NCERT text:
I. The oldest viable seed record is of a lupine, Lupinus arcticus, excavated from the Arctic
Tundra.
II. Lupinus arcticus germinated and flowered after an estimated 10,000 years of dormancy.
III. A recent record of a 2,000-year-old viable seed is of the date palm, Phoenix dactylifera.
IV. The viable seed of Phoenix dactylifera was discovered during archaeological excavation at
King Herod's palace near the Dead Sea.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
235.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Apple, strawberry, and cashew are classified as false fruits.
Reason (R): In these species, the pericarp degenerates completely, and the seed coat contributes
directly to fruit formation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Apple, strawberry, and cashew are classified as false fruits.
Reason (R): In these species, the pericarp degenerates completely, and the seed coat contributes
directly to fruit formation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
236.Consider the following statements regarding parthenocarpic fruits:
I. Parthenocarpic fruits develop without fertilisation.
II. Banana is a natural example of a parthenocarpic fruit.
III. Parthenocarpy can be artificially induced through the application of growth hormones.
IV. Induced parthenocarpic fruits contain a very high number of tiny, highly viable seeds.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Parthenocarpic fruits develop without fertilisation.
II. Banana is a natural example of a parthenocarpic fruit.
III. Parthenocarpy can be artificially induced through the application of growth hormones.
IV. Induced parthenocarpic fruits contain a very high number of tiny, highly viable seeds.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
237.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Apomixis represents a mechanism of asexual reproduction, yet its final product is
a seed.
Reason (R): Apomixis involves the production of seeds without fertilisation in species of families
such as Asteraceae and Poaceae (grasses).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Apomixis represents a mechanism of asexual reproduction, yet its final product is
a seed.
Reason (R): Apomixis involves the production of seeds without fertilisation in species of families
such as Asteraceae and Poaceae (grasses).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
238.Consider the following statements regarding the developmental pathways of apomixis:
I. In some apomictic species, a diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division.
II. The diploid egg cell divides meiotically before developing into an embryo.
III. The diploid egg cell develops directly into the embryo without fertilisation.
IV. Apomixis avoids the genetic segregation of characters in hybrid crops.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. In some apomictic species, a diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division.
II. The diploid egg cell divides meiotically before developing into an embryo.
III. The diploid egg cell develops directly into the embryo without fertilisation.
IV. Apomixis avoids the genetic segregation of characters in hybrid crops.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
239.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Squeezing the seeds of orange reveals multiple embryos of different sizes and
shapes in a single seed.
Reason (R): In Citrus, the maternal integumentary cells surrounding the embryo sac start
dividing, protrude into the embryo sac, and develop into vegetative embryos.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Squeezing the seeds of orange reveals multiple embryos of different sizes and
shapes in a single seed.
Reason (R): In Citrus, the maternal integumentary cells surrounding the embryo sac start
dividing, protrude into the embryo sac, and develop into vegetative embryos.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
240.Consider the following statements regarding the phenomenon of polyembryony:
I. Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred to as polyembryony.
II. In polyembryonic Citrus, each ovule contains many embryo sacs, each with a single zygotic
embryo.
III. Polyembryony is commonly observed in varieties of Citrus and Mango.
IV. The multiple embryos in a nucellar polyembryonic seed are genetically identical clones of the
maternal parent.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
I. Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred to as polyembryony.
II. In polyembryonic Citrus, each ovule contains many embryo sacs, each with a single zygotic
embryo.
III. Polyembryony is commonly observed in varieties of Citrus and Mango.
IV. The multiple embryos in a nucellar polyembryonic seed are genetically identical clones of the
maternal parent.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to the NCERT text?
Answer Key
13
21
32
44
53
64
74
81
91
101
113
121
134
142
152
163
174
183
193
203
213
224
233
244
252
264
271
283
294
304
311
324
333
342
351
362
373
384
391
402
413
422
433
441
454
464
473
481
492
502
511
522
534
542
551
561
574
583
594
601
611
621
634
642
654
661
673
681
692
702
712
724
732
742
751
761
771
781
792
803
811
823
832
843
854
861
872
884
894
902
912
921
933
943
953
963
973
984
992
1002
1014
1022
1033
1041
1053
1064
1073
1082
1093
1103
1113
1121
1131
1143
1153
1161
1174
1183
1191
1204
1211
1223
1234
1241
1254
1263
1274
1281
1293
1304
1311
1321
1332
1344
1352
1363
1372
1384
1394
1403
1412
1424
1433
1442
1451
1462
1474
1482
1492
1504
1511
1524
1531
1541
1552
1561
1571
1581
1592
1604
1612
1621
1632
1643
1652
1663
1674
1684
1691
1701
1712
1724
1731
1744
1753
1763
1773
1784
1793
1801
1813
1823
1831
1843
1854
1864
1874
1882
1892
1903
1913
1921
1934
1941
1951
1961
1971
1982
1994
2003
2012
2022
2032
2041
2053
2061
2073
2083
2092
2101
2112
2122
2133
2141
2153
2163
2173
2184
2192
2201
2212
2224
2234
2244
2254
2263
2274
2281
2291
2301
2314
2323
2331
2344
2354
2363
2371
2384
2393
2401