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NEET ]1[ Contd...
NEET UG Biotechnology Principles
Instructions:
- Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
- Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
- Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
- Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Biotechnology in its restricted modern sense mainly refers to processes that:
2.Which set contains examples included under biotechnology as described in the chapter?
3.The EFB definition of biotechnology includes natural science integrated with organisms, cells, parts thereof and:
4.The two core techniques that enabled modern biotechnology are:
5.Genetic engineering primarily means techniques used to alter:
6.Bioprocess engineering is most directly concerned with:
7.Traditional hybridisation is less precise than genetic engineering mainly because it may:
8.Alien DNA can multiply in a host only when it is linked with:
9.The first artificial recombinant DNA construction in 1972 is associated with:
10.In the first recombinant DNA example, the gene encoding antibiotic resistance was linked with:
11.The enzyme that joins the ends of cut DNA molecules is:
12.Which is the correct basic sequence for genetically modifying an organism?
13.Which one is NOT listed as a key tool for recombinant DNA technology in the chapter?
14.The first restriction endonuclease whose function depended on a specific nucleotide sequence was:
15.Hind II recognises a specific sequence of:
16.In EcoRI, the Roman numeral I indicates:
17.Exonucleases differ from endonucleases because exonucleases:
18.A DNA palindrome should be understood as a sequence that reads the same:
19.The sequence paired with 5'-GAATTC-3' in the EcoRI example is:
20.Sticky ends are called sticky because they:
21.In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA moves towards the:
22.In agarose gel, smaller DNA fragments:
23.DNA bands in gel are commonly visualised as bright orange bands after:
24.Cutting out separated DNA bands from agarose gel and extracting DNA is called:
25.Plasmids and bacteriophages are useful as vectors mainly because they can:
26.To recover many copies of target DNA, the chosen vector should ideally have:
27.A good cloning vector should have very few, preferably single, recognition site(s) because multiple sites would:
28.In blue-white screening using β-galactosidase, recombinant colonies are identified because they:
29.Which method directly injects recombinant DNA into an animal-cell nucleus?
30.A protein encoded by a gene expressed in a heterologous host is called:
31.Consider the following statements about biotechnology:
I. It can involve live organisms or enzymes from organisms.
II. In the broad sense, curd and bread making can be considered biotechnology.
III. In the restricted modern sense, it excludes genetically modified organisms.
IV. EFB definition includes molecular analogues for products and services.
Which statements are correct?
I. It can involve live organisms or enzymes from organisms.
II. In the broad sense, curd and bread making can be considered biotechnology.
III. In the restricted modern sense, it excludes genetically modified organisms.
IV. EFB definition includes molecular analogues for products and services.
Which statements are correct?
32.Evaluate the statements:
I. Genetic engineering alters DNA/RNA chemistry.
II. Bioprocess engineering aims at microbial contamination-free ambience.
III. Bioprocess engineering is irrelevant for vaccines and enzymes.
IV. Genetic engineering can change host phenotype.
Correct set is:
I. Genetic engineering alters DNA/RNA chemistry.
II. Bioprocess engineering aims at microbial contamination-free ambience.
III. Bioprocess engineering is irrelevant for vaccines and enzymes.
IV. Genetic engineering can change host phenotype.
Correct set is:
33.Which statements correctly compare traditional hybridisation and genetic engineering?
I. Sexual reproduction permits variation.
II. Asexual reproduction preserves genetic information.
III. Hybridisation always introduces only the desired gene.
IV. Genetic engineering can introduce one or a set of desirable genes.
I. Sexual reproduction permits variation.
II. Asexual reproduction preserves genetic information.
III. Hybridisation always introduces only the desired gene.
IV. Genetic engineering can introduce one or a set of desirable genes.
34.Alien DNA multiplication in a host depends on which correct statements?
I. Alien DNA often fails to multiply if not part of a replicating DNA molecule.
II. Origin of replication initiates replication.
III. Any DNA fragment can multiply without ori if it enters cytoplasm.
IV. Linking alien DNA with ori can allow cloning.
I. Alien DNA often fails to multiply if not part of a replicating DNA molecule.
II. Origin of replication initiates replication.
III. Any DNA fragment can multiply without ori if it enters cytoplasm.
IV. Linking alien DNA with ori can allow cloning.
35.Consider the first recombinant DNA construction:
I. It involved an antibiotic resistance gene.
II. It used a plasmid as vector.
III. DNA ligase cut DNA at specific sites.
IV. E. coli could make multiple copies after recombinant DNA transfer.
Correct statements are:
I. It involved an antibiotic resistance gene.
II. It used a plasmid as vector.
III. DNA ligase cut DNA at specific sites.
IV. E. coli could make multiple copies after recombinant DNA transfer.
Correct statements are:
36.Which statements are correct?
I. Identification of DNA with desirable genes is a basic step in genetic modification.
II. Introduction of identified DNA into the host is a basic step.
III. Maintenance of introduced DNA in host and progeny is a basic step.
IV. Ribosomes are listed as key cloning vectors in the chapter.
I. Identification of DNA with desirable genes is a basic step in genetic modification.
II. Introduction of identified DNA into the host is a basic step.
III. Maintenance of introduced DNA in host and progeny is a basic step.
IV. Ribosomes are listed as key cloning vectors in the chapter.
37.About restriction enzymes, choose the correct set:
I. In 1963, enzymes restricting bacteriophage growth in E. coli were isolated.
II. One such enzyme added methyl groups to DNA.
III. Hind II recognised a specific six-base-pair sequence.
IV. Only two restriction enzymes are known today.
I. In 1963, enzymes restricting bacteriophage growth in E. coli were isolated.
II. One such enzyme added methyl groups to DNA.
III. Hind II recognised a specific six-base-pair sequence.
IV. Only two restriction enzymes are known today.
38.For EcoRI nomenclature:
I. E comes from Escherichia.
II. co comes from coli.
III. R comes from strain RY13.
IV. I means first enzyme isolated from that strain.
Correct statements:
I. E comes from Escherichia.
II. co comes from coli.
III. R comes from strain RY13.
IV. I means first enzyme isolated from that strain.
Correct statements:
39.Identify correct statements:
I. Restriction enzymes are nucleases.
II. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from ends.
III. Endonucleases cut at specific internal positions.
IV. DNA ligase is an exonuclease.
I. Restriction enzymes are nucleases.
II. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from ends.
III. Endonucleases cut at specific internal positions.
IV. DNA ligase is an exonuclease.
40.Which statements about palindromic DNA sequences are correct?
I. Restriction endonucleases recognise specific palindromic sequences.
II. DNA palindrome reading depends on keeping orientation same.
III. EcoRI example includes GAATTC/CTTAAG.
IV. Palindrome means both strands have identical base letters in the same direction without complementarity.
I. Restriction endonucleases recognise specific palindromic sequences.
II. DNA palindrome reading depends on keeping orientation same.
III. EcoRI example includes GAATTC/CTTAAG.
IV. Palindrome means both strands have identical base letters in the same direction without complementarity.
41.Consider sticky ends:
I. They are single-stranded overhanging stretches.
II. They form hydrogen bonds with complementary cut counterparts.
III. They facilitate DNA ligase action.
IV. They are formed only when DNA is stained with ethidium bromide.
Correct statements:
I. They are single-stranded overhanging stretches.
II. They form hydrogen bonds with complementary cut counterparts.
III. They facilitate DNA ligase action.
IV. They are formed only when DNA is stained with ethidium bromide.
Correct statements:
42.Which statements explain why source DNA and vector DNA are usually cut with the same restriction enzyme?
I. It creates compatible sticky ends.
II. It enables end-to-end joining by DNA ligase.
III. It makes DNA positively charged.
IV. It usually helps create recombinant vector molecule.
I. It creates compatible sticky ends.
II. It enables end-to-end joining by DNA ligase.
III. It makes DNA positively charged.
IV. It usually helps create recombinant vector molecule.
43.Select the correct statements:
I. Restriction digestion produces DNA fragments.
II. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments.
III. DNA moves towards cathode because it is negatively charged.
IV. Smaller fragments move farther in agarose gel.
I. Restriction digestion produces DNA fragments.
II. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments.
III. DNA moves towards cathode because it is negatively charged.
IV. Smaller fragments move farther in agarose gel.
44.Regarding DNA separation and visualisation:
I. Agarose is extracted from seaweeds.
II. Agarose provides sieving effect.
III. Pure DNA is easily visible in visible light without staining.
IV. Elution means extraction of DNA from cut gel bands.
Correct set:
I. Agarose is extracted from seaweeds.
II. Agarose provides sieving effect.
III. Pure DNA is easily visible in visible light without staining.
IV. Elution means extraction of DNA from cut gel bands.
Correct set:
45.About cloning vectors:
I. Plasmids and bacteriophages replicate independently of chromosomal DNA control.
II. Linking alien DNA to a vector can multiply it according to copy number.
III. Engineered vectors help select recombinants from non-recombinants.
IV. Vectors always prevent replication of alien DNA.
I. Plasmids and bacteriophages replicate independently of chromosomal DNA control.
II. Linking alien DNA to a vector can multiply it according to copy number.
III. Engineered vectors help select recombinants from non-recombinants.
IV. Vectors always prevent replication of alien DNA.
46.Which vector-feature statements are correct?
I. Ori controls copy number.
II. Selectable marker helps eliminate non-transformants.
III. Cloning sites should preferably be single for commonly used enzymes.
IV. Multiple recognition sites simplify cloning by producing many fragments.
I. Ori controls copy number.
II. Selectable marker helps eliminate non-transformants.
III. Cloning sites should preferably be single for commonly used enzymes.
IV. Multiple recognition sites simplify cloning by producing many fragments.
47.With respect to selectable markers in E. coli:
I. They help identify transformants.
II. Antibiotic resistance genes may act as markers.
III. Normal E. coli cells naturally carry resistance against all listed antibiotics.
IV. Ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline and kanamycin are examples mentioned.
I. They help identify transformants.
II. Antibiotic resistance genes may act as markers.
III. Normal E. coli cells naturally carry resistance against all listed antibiotics.
IV. Ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline and kanamycin are examples mentioned.
48.In the pBR322 example where alien DNA is ligated at BamHI in tetR:
I. Recombinant plasmids lose tetracycline resistance.
II. Recombinants can still grow on ampicillin medium.
III. Non-recombinants grow on both ampicillin and tetracycline.
IV. Recombinants grow on tetracycline but not ampicillin.
Correct statements:
I. Recombinant plasmids lose tetracycline resistance.
II. Recombinants can still grow on ampicillin medium.
III. Non-recombinants grow on both ampicillin and tetracycline.
IV. Recombinants grow on tetracycline but not ampicillin.
Correct statements:
49.In colour-based selection:
I. Chromogenic substrate helps differentiate colonies.
II. Insertion within β-galactosidase coding sequence causes insertional inactivation.
III. Non-recombinants with no insert appear blue.
IV. Recombinants with insert appear blue due to active β-galactosidase.
Correct statements:
I. Chromogenic substrate helps differentiate colonies.
II. Insertion within β-galactosidase coding sequence causes insertional inactivation.
III. Non-recombinants with no insert appear blue.
IV. Recombinants with insert appear blue due to active β-galactosidase.
Correct statements:
50.Consider gene delivery vectors:
I. Agrobacterium tumifaciens transfers T-DNA into dicot plants.
II. Ti plasmid is modified into a non-pathogenic plant cloning vector.
III. Disarmed retroviruses can deliver desirable genes into animal cells.
IV. Ti plasmid is mainly used for direct injection into animal-cell nucleus.
I. Agrobacterium tumifaciens transfers T-DNA into dicot plants.
II. Ti plasmid is modified into a non-pathogenic plant cloning vector.
III. Disarmed retroviruses can deliver desirable genes into animal cells.
IV. Ti plasmid is mainly used for direct injection into animal-cell nucleus.
51.About making bacteria competent:
I. DNA is hydrophilic and cannot easily pass through cell membranes.
II. Divalent cations such as calcium can increase DNA entry efficiency.
III. Heat shock step is briefly at 42°C.
IV. Competent cells are kept permanently at 100°C to take up DNA.
Correct set:
I. DNA is hydrophilic and cannot easily pass through cell membranes.
II. Divalent cations such as calcium can increase DNA entry efficiency.
III. Heat shock step is briefly at 42°C.
IV. Competent cells are kept permanently at 100°C to take up DNA.
Correct set:
52.Which statements correctly match DNA transfer methods?
I. Micro-injection: direct injection into animal-cell nucleus.
II. Biolistics: DNA-coated gold/tungsten particles for plants.
III. Disarmed pathogen vectors: transfer DNA by infection.
IV. Gel electrophoresis: directly injects DNA into nucleus.
I. Micro-injection: direct injection into animal-cell nucleus.
II. Biolistics: DNA-coated gold/tungsten particles for plants.
III. Disarmed pathogen vectors: transfer DNA by infection.
IV. Gel electrophoresis: directly injects DNA into nucleus.
53.The recombinant DNA technology workflow includes:
I. Isolation of DNA.
II. Fragmentation by restriction endonucleases.
III. Ligation into vector.
IV. Culturing host cells at large scale and extraction of desired product.
Correct option:
I. Isolation of DNA.
II. Fragmentation by restriction endonucleases.
III. Ligation into vector.
IV. Culturing host cells at large scale and extraction of desired product.
Correct option:
54.During isolation of genetic material:
I. DNA must be pure before restriction digestion.
II. Lysozyme is used for bacterial cells.
III. RNA is removed by protease.
IV. Purified DNA precipitates after chilled ethanol addition.
Correct statements:
I. DNA must be pure before restriction digestion.
II. Lysozyme is used for bacterial cells.
III. RNA is removed by protease.
IV. Purified DNA precipitates after chilled ethanol addition.
Correct statements:
55.Choose the correct enzyme-use statements:
I. Lysozyme—bacteria.
II. Cellulase—plant cells.
III. Chitinase—fungus.
IV. Protease—removal of RNA.
Correct set:
I. Lysozyme—bacteria.
II. Cellulase—plant cells.
III. Chitinase—fungus.
IV. Protease—removal of RNA.
Correct set:
56.Which statements about cutting and joining DNA are correct?
I. Restriction digestion requires purified DNA and enzyme-specific optimal conditions.
II. Gel electrophoresis checks progress of digestion.
III. Source and vector DNA are cut with a specific restriction enzyme before ligation.
IV. Ligase is added before any DNA is cut.
I. Restriction digestion requires purified DNA and enzyme-specific optimal conditions.
II. Gel electrophoresis checks progress of digestion.
III. Source and vector DNA are cut with a specific restriction enzyme before ligation.
IV. Ligase is added before any DNA is cut.
57.Regarding PCR:
I. PCR means Polymerase Chain Reaction.
II. It synthesises multiple copies in vitro.
III. It uses primers and DNA polymerase.
IV. Taq polymerase is isolated from Thermus aquaticus.
Correct set:
I. PCR means Polymerase Chain Reaction.
II. It synthesises multiple copies in vitro.
III. It uses primers and DNA polymerase.
IV. Taq polymerase is isolated from Thermus aquaticus.
Correct set:
58.Consider the following statements:
I. Primers are chemically synthesised oligonucleotides.
II. Primers are complementary to regions of DNA.
III. DNA polymerase extends primers using nucleotides and template DNA.
IV. Thermostable polymerase is destroyed during denaturation in PCR.
Correct statements:
I. Primers are chemically synthesised oligonucleotides.
II. Primers are complementary to regions of DNA.
III. DNA polymerase extends primers using nucleotides and template DNA.
IV. Thermostable polymerase is destroyed during denaturation in PCR.
Correct statements:
59.If recombinant DNA carries ampicillin resistance and enters E. coli:
I. Transformed cells become ampicillin resistant.
II. On ampicillin agar, untransformed recipient cells die.
III. Ampicillin resistance gene acts as selectable marker.
IV. All cells grow equally because ampicillin is irrelevant.
I. Transformed cells become ampicillin resistant.
II. On ampicillin agar, untransformed recipient cells die.
III. Ampicillin resistance gene acts as selectable marker.
IV. All cells grow equally because ampicillin is irrelevant.
60.Regarding foreign gene product:
I. The ultimate aim of many recombinant technologies is desirable protein production.
II. Foreign gene must be expressed under appropriate conditions.
III. Recombinant protein is produced when a gene is expressed in a heterologous host.
IV. Small cultures always yield industrial quantities.
I. The ultimate aim of many recombinant technologies is desirable protein production.
II. Foreign gene must be expressed under appropriate conditions.
III. Recombinant protein is produced when a gene is expressed in a heterologous host.
IV. Small cultures always yield industrial quantities.
61.In continuous culture:
I. Used medium is drained from one side.
II. Fresh medium is added from the other side.
III. Cells are maintained in log/exponential phase.
IV. It is meant to lower biomass and protein yield.
Correct set:
I. Used medium is drained from one side.
II. Fresh medium is added from the other side.
III. Cells are maintained in log/exponential phase.
IV. It is meant to lower biomass and protein yield.
Correct set:
62.Which statements about bioreactors are correct?
I. They process large culture volumes, about 100–1000 L.
II. They provide optimal growth conditions.
III. Stirred-tank reactor helps mixing and oxygen availability.
IV. Sampling ports prevent withdrawal of culture samples.
I. They process large culture volumes, about 100–1000 L.
II. They provide optimal growth conditions.
III. Stirred-tank reactor helps mixing and oxygen availability.
IV. Sampling ports prevent withdrawal of culture samples.
63.A stirred-tank bioreactor may include:
I. Agitator system.
II. Oxygen delivery system.
III. Foam control system.
IV. pH control and sampling ports.
Correct option:
I. Agitator system.
II. Oxygen delivery system.
III. Foam control system.
IV. pH control and sampling ports.
Correct option:
64.After biosynthetic stage:
I. Product undergoes downstream processing.
II. Separation and purification are part of downstream processing.
III. Suitable preservatives may be used in formulation.
IV. Quality control testing is unnecessary if PCR was used.
Correct statements:
I. Product undergoes downstream processing.
II. Separation and purification are part of downstream processing.
III. Suitable preservatives may be used in formulation.
IV. Quality control testing is unnecessary if PCR was used.
Correct statements:
65.Choose the correct logical statements:
I. A transformant has taken up introduced DNA.
II. A recombinant colony necessarily contains the insert in the intended vector context.
III. All transformants are automatically recombinants in insertional-inactivation screening.
IV. Selectable markers can help distinguish useful cells from non-useful cells.
I. A transformant has taken up introduced DNA.
II. A recombinant colony necessarily contains the insert in the intended vector context.
III. All transformants are automatically recombinants in insertional-inactivation screening.
IV. Selectable markers can help distinguish useful cells from non-useful cells.
66.Which combined statements are accurate?
I. In pBR322 example, tetR can be insertionally inactivated.
II. In blue-white screening, β-galactosidase can be insertionally inactivated.
III. Both examples use the same basic logic of disrupted gene function to identify recombinants.
IV. Both examples require DNA to move towards the cathode.
I. In pBR322 example, tetR can be insertionally inactivated.
II. In blue-white screening, β-galactosidase can be insertionally inactivated.
III. Both examples use the same basic logic of disrupted gene function to identify recombinants.
IV. Both examples require DNA to move towards the cathode.
67.Which integrated statements are correct?
I. Restriction enzymes cut DNA.
II. DNA ligase joins cut DNA ends.
III. Source DNA and vector DNA are generally cut before ligation.
IV. Polymerase enzymes are primarily used to join sticky ends.
I. Restriction enzymes cut DNA.
II. DNA ligase joins cut DNA ends.
III. Source DNA and vector DNA are generally cut before ligation.
IV. Polymerase enzymes are primarily used to join sticky ends.
68.Which quantity/appearance statements are correct?
I. Chilled ethanol precipitated DNA can appear as fine threads.
II. PCR can make about one billion copies of a DNA segment.
III. Bioreactors may process 100–1000 L culture.
IV. Plasmids always have exactly one copy per cell.
I. Chilled ethanol precipitated DNA can appear as fine threads.
II. PCR can make about one billion copies of a DNA segment.
III. Bioreactors may process 100–1000 L culture.
IV. Plasmids always have exactly one copy per cell.
69.Select the fully correct set:
I. DNA migrates to anode.
II. Smaller fragments travel farther.
III. EtBr plus UV gives bright orange DNA bands.
IV. Elution means staining DNA with EtBr.
I. DNA migrates to anode.
II. Smaller fragments travel farther.
III. EtBr plus UV gives bright orange DNA bands.
IV. Elution means staining DNA with EtBr.
70.Which statements avoid the common host-method mismatch?
I. Calcium ions help make bacteria competent.
II. Heat shock uses a brief 42°C step.
III. Gene gun uses DNA-coated gold/tungsten particles.
IV. Micro-injection is primarily agarose-gel loading.
I. Calcium ions help make bacteria competent.
II. Heat shock uses a brief 42°C step.
III. Gene gun uses DNA-coated gold/tungsten particles.
IV. Micro-injection is primarily agarose-gel loading.
71.Which statement is NOT correct about biotechnology as per the chapter?
72.All are correct for bioprocess engineering EXCEPT:
73.Which statement is incorrect?
74.Which statement about origin of replication is incorrect?
75.All are part of the Cohen-Boyer recombinant DNA logic EXCEPT:
76.Which is NOT a key tool listed for recombinant DNA technology?
77.Which statement about EcoRI nomenclature is incorrect?
78.Which statement is incorrect?
79.All statements about restriction-endonuclease recognition are correct EXCEPT:
80.Which statement is NOT true about sticky ends?
81.Choose the incorrect statement about gel electrophoresis.
82.All are correct EXCEPT:
83.Which is NOT a required/desired feature of a cloning vector?
84.Which statement is incorrect about selectable markers?
85.In the pBR322 BamHI-in-tetR example, which statement is incorrect?
86.Which statement is incorrect for β-galactosidase insertional inactivation?
87.Which statement is NOT correct?
88.All are true for bacterial competence EXCEPT:
89.Which pairing is incorrect?
90.Which step is NOT part of the stated recombinant DNA technology sequence?
91.Which statement is incorrect in DNA isolation?
92.All are true for PCR EXCEPT:
93.Which statement is NOT true about PCR primers?
94.Which statement is incorrect for ampicillin selection?
95.Which statement is incorrect?
96.All are associated with stirred-tank bioreactors EXCEPT:
97.Which is NOT a downstream-processing-related requirement described?
98.Match Column I with Column II.
Column I: (a) Genetic engineering (b) Bioprocess engineering (c) Antibiotics/vaccines/enzymes (d) Sterile ambience
Column II: (i) Products linked with large-scale process (ii) Alters genetic material (iii) Contamination-free conditions (iv) Large-scale growth of desired cells
Choose the correct matching.
Column I: (a) Genetic engineering (b) Bioprocess engineering (c) Antibiotics/vaccines/enzymes (d) Sterile ambience
Column II: (i) Products linked with large-scale process (ii) Alters genetic material (iii) Contamination-free conditions (iv) Large-scale growth of desired cells
Choose the correct matching.
99.Match the component with its role.
(a) Restriction enzyme (b) Plasmid (c) DNA ligase (d) E. coli host DNA polymerase
(i) Joins DNA ends (ii) Cuts DNA at specific sites (iii) Replicates recombinant DNA copies in host (iv) Vector carrying alien DNA
Correct option:
(a) Restriction enzyme (b) Plasmid (c) DNA ligase (d) E. coli host DNA polymerase
(i) Joins DNA ends (ii) Cuts DNA at specific sites (iii) Replicates recombinant DNA copies in host (iv) Vector carrying alien DNA
Correct option:
100.Match EcoRI nomenclature parts.
(a) E (b) co (c) R (d) I
(i) strain information (ii) first enzyme from strain (iii) genus Escherichia (iv) species coli
Correct matching:
(a) E (b) co (c) R (d) I
(i) strain information (ii) first enzyme from strain (iii) genus Escherichia (iv) species coli
Correct matching:
101.Match enzyme type with action.
(a) Exonuclease (b) Endonuclease (c) DNA ligase (d) DNA polymerase
(i) Extends primers (ii) Removes nucleotides from ends (iii) Cuts internally (iv) Joins cut DNA ends
Correct matching:
(a) Exonuclease (b) Endonuclease (c) DNA ligase (d) DNA polymerase
(i) Extends primers (ii) Removes nucleotides from ends (iii) Cuts internally (iv) Joins cut DNA ends
Correct matching:
102.Match terms in gel electrophoresis.
(a) Agarose (b) Anode (c) Ethidium bromide + UV (d) Elution
(i) DNA migrates toward it (ii) Matrix from seaweed (iii) Extraction of DNA from gel band (iv) Bright orange DNA bands
Correct option:
(a) Agarose (b) Anode (c) Ethidium bromide + UV (d) Elution
(i) DNA migrates toward it (ii) Matrix from seaweed (iii) Extraction of DNA from gel band (iv) Bright orange DNA bands
Correct option:
103.Match vector feature with function.
(a) Ori (b) Selectable marker (c) Cloning site (d) Multiple recognition sites
(i) Identifies transformants (ii) Initiates replication/copy number control (iii) Complicates cloning (iv) Site for alien DNA insertion
Correct matching:
(a) Ori (b) Selectable marker (c) Cloning site (d) Multiple recognition sites
(i) Identifies transformants (ii) Initiates replication/copy number control (iii) Complicates cloning (iv) Site for alien DNA insertion
Correct matching:
104.Match pBR322 selection terms.
(a) ampR (b) tetR (c) BamHI insertion in tetR (d) Recombinant colony in given example
(i) loses tetracycline resistance (ii) ampicillin resistance marker (iii) tetracycline resistance marker (iv) grows on ampicillin but not tetracycline
Correct option:
(a) ampR (b) tetR (c) BamHI insertion in tetR (d) Recombinant colony in given example
(i) loses tetracycline resistance (ii) ampicillin resistance marker (iii) tetracycline resistance marker (iv) grows on ampicillin but not tetracycline
Correct option:
105.Match colour-screening terms.
(a) β-galactosidase active (b) Insert in β-galactosidase gene (c) Non-recombinant colony (d) Recombinant colony
(i) no colour/white (ii) blue colony (iii) insertional inactivation (iv) enzyme function retained
Correct matching:
(a) β-galactosidase active (b) Insert in β-galactosidase gene (c) Non-recombinant colony (d) Recombinant colony
(i) no colour/white (ii) blue colony (iii) insertional inactivation (iv) enzyme function retained
Correct matching:
106.Match vector/source with use.
(a) Agrobacterium tumifaciens (b) Ti plasmid (modified) (c) Retrovirus (disarmed) (d) T-DNA
(i) animal gene delivery vector (ii) plant cloning vector (iii) transforms plant cells (iv) dicot plant pathogen
Correct option:
(a) Agrobacterium tumifaciens (b) Ti plasmid (modified) (c) Retrovirus (disarmed) (d) T-DNA
(i) animal gene delivery vector (ii) plant cloning vector (iii) transforms plant cells (iv) dicot plant pathogen
Correct option:
107.Match method with description.
(a) Calcium treatment (b) Heat shock (c) Micro-injection (d) Biolistics
(i) DNA-coated gold/tungsten particles (ii) makes bacteria competent (iii) brief 42°C step (iv) direct animal nuclear injection
Correct matching:
(a) Calcium treatment (b) Heat shock (c) Micro-injection (d) Biolistics
(i) DNA-coated gold/tungsten particles (ii) makes bacteria competent (iii) brief 42°C step (iv) direct animal nuclear injection
Correct matching:
108.Match treatment with target/context.
(a) Lysozyme (b) Cellulase (c) Chitinase (d) Ribonuclease
(i) plant cells (ii) RNA removal (iii) bacterial cells (iv) fungus
Correct option:
(a) Lysozyme (b) Cellulase (c) Chitinase (d) Ribonuclease
(i) plant cells (ii) RNA removal (iii) bacterial cells (iv) fungus
Correct option:
109.Match PCR term with function.
(a) Primer (b) DNA polymerase (c) Thermus aquaticus (d) PCR product
(i) source of thermostable polymerase (ii) extends primers (iii) can be ligated with vector (iv) complementary oligonucleotide
Correct matching:
(a) Primer (b) DNA polymerase (c) Thermus aquaticus (d) PCR product
(i) source of thermostable polymerase (ii) extends primers (iii) can be ligated with vector (iv) complementary oligonucleotide
Correct matching:
110.Match cell/condition with outcome in ampicillin selection.
(a) Transformed E. coli with ampR (b) Untransformed recipient cell (c) Ampicillin resistance gene (d) Ampicillin agar
(i) selectable marker (ii) selection medium (iii) grows (iv) dies
Correct matching:
(a) Transformed E. coli with ampR (b) Untransformed recipient cell (c) Ampicillin resistance gene (d) Ampicillin agar
(i) selectable marker (ii) selection medium (iii) grows (iv) dies
Correct matching:
111.Match bioreactor feature with role.
(a) Stirrer (b) Curved/cylindrical base (c) Sampling ports (d) Foam control system
(i) periodic withdrawal of culture samples (ii) mixing and oxygen availability (iii) controls foam (iv) facilitates mixing of contents
Correct option:
(a) Stirrer (b) Curved/cylindrical base (c) Sampling ports (d) Foam control system
(i) periodic withdrawal of culture samples (ii) mixing and oxygen availability (iii) controls foam (iv) facilitates mixing of contents
Correct option:
112.Match downstream processing term with meaning.
(a) Biosynthetic stage complete (b) Separation and purification (c) Formulation (d) Quality control testing
(i) product-specific strict testing (ii) suitable preservatives (iii) beginning point before marketing preparation (iv) core downstream processes
Correct matching:
(a) Biosynthetic stage complete (b) Separation and purification (c) Formulation (d) Quality control testing
(i) product-specific strict testing (ii) suitable preservatives (iii) beginning point before marketing preparation (iv) core downstream processes
Correct matching:
113.Match process step with key action.
(a) Isolation of DNA (b) Fragmentation of DNA (c) Ligation into vector (d) Extraction of product
(i) restriction endonuclease cutting (ii) desired product recovery after host culture (iii) pure DNA free from macromolecules (iv) ligase joins gene/vector
Correct option:
(a) Isolation of DNA (b) Fragmentation of DNA (c) Ligation into vector (d) Extraction of product
(i) restriction endonuclease cutting (ii) desired product recovery after host culture (iii) pure DNA free from macromolecules (iv) ligase joins gene/vector
Correct option:
114.Assertion: Alien DNA generally needs to be linked with an origin of replication to multiply in a host.
Reason: Origin of replication is the DNA sequence from where replication starts.
Reason: Origin of replication is the DNA sequence from where replication starts.
115.Assertion: Genetic engineering can be more precise than traditional hybridisation.
Reason: Traditional hybridisation may introduce undesirable genes along with desired genes.
Reason: Traditional hybridisation may introduce undesirable genes along with desired genes.
116.Assertion: Sticky ends facilitate the action of DNA ligase.
Reason: Sticky ends can form hydrogen bonds with complementary cut counterparts.
Reason: Sticky ends can form hydrogen bonds with complementary cut counterparts.
117.Assertion: Vector and source DNA are usually cut with the same restriction enzyme.
Reason: Cutting with the same enzyme generates compatible sticky ends.
Reason: Cutting with the same enzyme generates compatible sticky ends.
118.Assertion: In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move towards the anode.
Reason: DNA fragments are negatively charged.
Reason: DNA fragments are negatively charged.
119.Assertion: Smaller DNA fragments move farther in agarose gel.
Reason: Agarose gel separates DNA fragments through sieving effect.
Reason: Agarose gel separates DNA fragments through sieving effect.
120.Assertion: A cloning vector should preferably have a single recognition site for a commonly used restriction enzyme.
Reason: More than one recognition site may generate several fragments and complicate cloning.
Reason: More than one recognition site may generate several fragments and complicate cloning.
121.Assertion: Recombinant pBR322 plasmids with insertion at BamHI in tetR fail to grow on tetracycline medium.
Reason: Foreign DNA insertion can inactivate the tetracycline resistance gene.
Reason: Foreign DNA insertion can inactivate the tetracycline resistance gene.
122.Assertion: Recombinant colonies are colourless/white in β-galactosidase-based screening.
Reason: Insertion of recombinant DNA inactivates the β-galactosidase coding sequence.
Reason: Insertion of recombinant DNA inactivates the β-galactosidase coding sequence.
123.Assertion: Bacterial cells are treated with calcium to become competent.
Reason: Calcium treatment increases the efficiency with which DNA enters through pores in bacterial cell wall.
Reason: Calcium treatment increases the efficiency with which DNA enters through pores in bacterial cell wall.
124.Assertion: Taq polymerase is useful in PCR.
Reason: It remains active during high-temperature denaturation.
Reason: It remains active during high-temperature denaturation.
125.Assertion: Ampicillin resistance gene can be used as a selectable marker.
Reason: On ampicillin plates, cells lacking ampicillin resistance die while transformants can grow.
Reason: On ampicillin plates, cells lacking ampicillin resistance die while transformants can grow.
126.Assertion: Continuous culture can give higher yield of desired protein.
Reason: Used medium is replaced with fresh medium to maintain cells in log/exponential phase.
Reason: Used medium is replaced with fresh medium to maintain cells in log/exponential phase.
127.Figure-based: In the EcoRI action diagram, a student labels the overhanging single-stranded ends as 'sticky ends'. Which label reason is most accurate?
128.Process-based: After EcoRI cuts two DNA molecules at the same recognition sequence, the next most relevant enzyme for forming recombinant DNA is:
129.Gel-based: If wells are at the top and bands move downward towards the anode, which band position would most likely represent the smallest DNA fragment?
130.Gel-based: A gel lane shows no visible DNA bands under normal visible light before staining. The best NCERT-based interpretation is:
131.Vector-map based: In pBR322, if a foreign DNA insert is placed at BamHI site within tetR, which plate pattern identifies recombinant colonies in the given logic?
132.Table-based: In β-galactosidase screening, which row is correct?
133.Process-based: Correct heat-shock transformation sequence is:
134.PCR cycle diagram usually shows denaturation, primer annealing and extension. In the extension step, the most direct event is:
135.Bioreactor diagram-based: Which label-function pair is correct for stirred-tank reactor?
136.Process-flow based: Which order is most consistent after host cells produce the desired product?
137.Which combination correctly lists tools/actions required to create recombinant DNA from two DNA sources?
I. Restriction endonuclease cuts both DNA molecules.
II. Compatible sticky ends form when the same enzyme is used.
III. DNA ligase joins complementary ends.
IV. Exonuclease extends primers to make copies.
Choose the correct option.
I. Restriction endonuclease cuts both DNA molecules.
II. Compatible sticky ends form when the same enzyme is used.
III. DNA ligase joins complementary ends.
IV. Exonuclease extends primers to make copies.
Choose the correct option.
138.Select the correct combination for separation and recovery of DNA fragments.
I. Restriction digestion generates fragments.
II. DNA moves towards anode.
III. Agarose resolves fragments according to size.
IV. Elution recovers DNA from gel bands.
V. Larger fragments always move farthest.
Correct combination:
I. Restriction digestion generates fragments.
II. DNA moves towards anode.
III. Agarose resolves fragments according to size.
IV. Elution recovers DNA from gel bands.
V. Larger fragments always move farthest.
Correct combination:
139.A vector suitable for selection of recombinants may require:
I. Ori.
II. Selectable marker.
III. Preferably single cloning site.
IV. Insertional inactivation logic.
V. Absence of any replication sequence.
Correct combination:
I. Ori.
II. Selectable marker.
III. Preferably single cloning site.
IV. Insertional inactivation logic.
V. Absence of any replication sequence.
Correct combination:
140.In selection systems, which combinations are correct?
I. pBR322 recombinant at tetR: Ampicillin growth, tetracycline no growth.
II. pBR322 non-recombinant: Growth on both ampicillin and tetracycline.
III. β-galactosidase recombinant: no colour.
IV. β-galactosidase non-recombinant: blue colony.
Correct combination:
I. pBR322 recombinant at tetR: Ampicillin growth, tetracycline no growth.
II. pBR322 non-recombinant: Growth on both ampicillin and tetracycline.
III. β-galactosidase recombinant: no colour.
IV. β-galactosidase non-recombinant: blue colony.
Correct combination:
141.Which combination correctly matches DNA introduction methods?
I. Ca2+ competence and heat shock — bacteria.
II. Micro-injection — animal-cell nucleus.
III. Biolistics — plant cells using DNA-coated gold/tungsten particles.
IV. Disarmed pathogen vector — infection-mediated transfer.
V. Ethidium bromide — host transformation method.
Correct combination:
I. Ca2+ competence and heat shock — bacteria.
II. Micro-injection — animal-cell nucleus.
III. Biolistics — plant cells using DNA-coated gold/tungsten particles.
IV. Disarmed pathogen vector — infection-mediated transfer.
V. Ethidium bromide — host transformation method.
Correct combination:
142.Choose the correct combination of enzyme/source/function facts.
I. Lysozyme—bacterial cell wall digestion.
II. Cellulase—plant cells.
III. Chitinase—fungus.
IV. Ribonuclease—RNA removal.
V. Taq polymerase—thermostable DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus.
Correct option:
I. Lysozyme—bacterial cell wall digestion.
II. Cellulase—plant cells.
III. Chitinase—fungus.
IV. Ribonuclease—RNA removal.
V. Taq polymerase—thermostable DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus.
Correct option:
143.Which combination is in correct conceptual order for recombinant DNA preparation before host transfer?
I. Isolation of genetic material.
II. Restriction digestion of source and vector DNA.
III. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
IV. Ligation into vector.
Choose the best order.
I. Isolation of genetic material.
II. Restriction digestion of source and vector DNA.
III. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
IV. Ligation into vector.
Choose the best order.
144.Which combination belongs to large-scale production and product finishing?
I. Continuous culture maintaining log phase.
II. Bioreactors of 100–1000 L.
III. Optimal temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins and oxygen.
IV. Separation, purification, formulation and quality control.
V. Skipping clinical trials for drug formulations.
Correct combination:
I. Continuous culture maintaining log phase.
II. Bioreactors of 100–1000 L.
III. Optimal temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins and oxygen.
IV. Separation, purification, formulation and quality control.
V. Skipping clinical trials for drug formulations.
Correct combination:
145.A student wants maximum copies of an inserted gene from a plasmid vector. Which design choice is most directly useful?
146.A recombinant-vector attempt fails because the source DNA was cut with EcoRI and the vector was cut with a different enzyme producing non-compatible ends. The best correction is to:
147.Bacterial transformation efficiency is low because cells were mixed with recombinant DNA without competence treatment. Which step directly addresses this?
148.On chromogenic medium, a student selects blue colonies as recombinants in β-galactosidase screening. What is the mistake?
149.A PCR fails after the first high-temperature denaturation step because ordinary DNA polymerase was used. Which replacement best fits the chapter?
150.A lab successfully expresses a recombinant protein in small flasks but cannot produce marketable quantity. Which combination is the most NCERT-aligned next strategy?
Answer Key
12
23
32
42
52
61
72
82
92
102
111
122
134
142
152
161
172
182
192
202
212
222
232
243
251
262
272
282
292
302
311
322
331
341
351
362
371
383
391
401
412
421
431
441
451
461
471
481
491
501
511
521
533
541
551
561
573
581
591
601
611
621
633
641
651
661
671
681
691
701
714
724
734
744
754
764
774
784
794
804
814
824
834
844
854
864
874
884
894
904
913
924
934
944
954
964
974
981
991
1001
1011
1021
1031
1041
1051
1061
1071
1081
1091
1101
1111
1121
1131
1141
1151
1161
1171
1181
1191
1201
1211
1221
1231
1241
1251
1261
1272
1282
1292
1302
1312
1322
1332
1342
1352
1362
1371
1381
1391
1402
1411
1422
1432
1441
1452
1462
1471
1481
1491
1501