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NEET ]1[ Contd...

NEET Biology - Body Fluids and Circulation

Duration: 150 minutesTotal Marks: 600Questions: 150Negative Marking: -1

Instructions:

  1. Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
  2. Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
  3. Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
  4. Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Blood is best described in the uploaded chapter as:
(1)A fluid epithelial tissue made only of plasma
(2)A special connective tissue with plasma and formed elements
(3)A loose connective tissue without a matrix
(4)A body fluid composed only of formed elements
2.The approximate percentage composition of plasma and formed elements in blood is respectively:
(1)45% and 55%
(2)55% and 45%
(3)90-92% and 6-8%
(4)6-8% and 90-92%
3.In plasma, water and proteins respectively constitute approximately:
(1)55% and 45%
(2)45% and 55%
(3)90-92% and 6-8%
(4)6-8% and 90-92%
4.Which set of plasma protein and function is correctly matched?
(1)Albumins - clotting
(2)Globulins - osmotic balance
(3)Fibrinogens - coagulation
(4)Fibrinogens - defence
5.Plasma without clotting factors is called:
(1)Lymph
(2)Serum
(3)Interstitial fluid
(4)Coagulum
6.The most abundant cells in blood are:
(1)Leucocytes
(2)Platelets
(3)Erythrocytes
(4)Megakaryocytes
7.The average RBC count in a healthy adult man is closest to:
(1)6,000-8,000 per mm3
(2)1.5-3.5 lakh per mm3
(3)5-5.5 million per mm3
(4)70-75 per minute
8.The correct pair is:
(1)RBC formation - spleen; RBC destruction - red bone marrow
(2)RBC formation - red bone marrow; RBC destruction - spleen
(3)RBC formation - lymph nodes; RBC destruction - thymus
(4)RBC formation - plasma; RBC destruction - liver only
9.RBCs of most mammals are:
(1)Nucleated and spherical
(2)Non-nucleated and biconcave
(3)Nucleated and biconcave
(4)Non-nucleated and spindle-shaped
10.Choose the correct haemoglobin amount and RBC life span in healthy humans:
(1)5-5.5 g/100 mL; 120 days
(2)12-16 g/100 mL; 120 days
(3)12-16 g/L; 70-75 days
(4)6-8 g/100 mL; 90 days
11.Leucocytes are called white blood cells because they:
(1)Lack haemoglobin
(2)Lack nucleus
(3)Are more numerous than RBCs
(4)Contain fibrinogen
12.Which of the following is an agranulocyte?
(1)Neutrophil
(2)Eosinophil
(3)Basophil
(4)Monocyte
13.Among WBCs, the most abundant and least abundant types are respectively:
(1)Basophils and neutrophils
(2)Neutrophils and basophils
(3)Lymphocytes and monocytes
(4)Monocytes and eosinophils
14.Which WBC pair is phagocytic according to the chapter?
(1)Neutrophils and monocytes
(2)Basophils and eosinophils
(3)B and T lymphocytes
(4)Eosinophils and lymphocytes
15.Basophils are mainly associated with secretion of:
(1)Haemoglobin, fibrinogen and albumin
(2)Histamine, serotonin and heparin
(3)Thrombin, prothrombin and fibrin
(4)Anti-A and anti-B antibodies only
16.Eosinophils are correctly described as WBCs that:
(1)Form 20-25% and occur as B/T forms
(2)Form 2-3%, resist infections and are associated with allergic reactions
(3)Are least abundant and secrete heparin
(4)Are cell fragments from megakaryocytes
17.Platelets are:
(1)Nucleated WBCs from thymus
(2)Cell fragments from megakaryocytes
(3)Biconcave cells from spleen
(4)Plasma proteins involved in osmotic balance
18.Normal platelet count per mm3 of blood is approximately:
(1)5-5.5 million
(2)6,000-8,000
(3)150,000-350,000
(4)70-75
19.ABO grouping is based on:
(1)Presence or absence of Rh antigen only
(2)Presence or absence of A and B surface antigens on RBCs
(3)Presence of haemoglobin in WBCs
(4)Number of platelets
20.A person with blood group A has:
(1)A antigen and anti-B antibody
(2)B antigen and anti-A antibody
(3)A and B antigens and no antibody
(4)No antigen and anti-A plus anti-B
21.Which ABO group has no anti-A or anti-B antibody in plasma?
(1)A
(2)B
(3)AB
(4)O
22.The universal donor and universal recipient in ABO grouping are respectively:
(1)AB and O
(2)O and AB
(3)A and B
(4)B and A
23.Rh antigen is so named because it is similar to an antigen present in:
(1)Rabbit
(2)Rhesus monkey
(3)Rat
(4)Human lymphocytes
24.The condition due to Rh incompatibility in the newborn is:
(1)Atherosclerosis
(2)Angina pectoris
(3)Erythroblastosis foetalis
(4)Hypertension
25.The ion with a very important role in clotting is:
(1)Na+
(2)Ca2+
(3)Cl-
(4)HCO3-
26.Tissue fluid is also called:
(1)Serum
(2)Interstitial fluid
(3)Coagulum
(4)Thrombokinase
27.Fats are absorbed through lymph in:
(1)Spleen sinuses
(2)Lacteals of intestinal villi
(3)Pericardial fluid
(4)Pulmonary veins
28.The open circulatory system is typical of:
(1)Annelids and chordates
(2)Arthropods and molluscs
(3)Birds and mammals
(4)Fishes and amphibians
29.Which group is an exception among reptiles in having a four-chambered heart?
(1)Lizard
(2)Snake
(3)Crocodile
(4)Turtle
30.The human heart is protected by:
(1)Tunica externa
(2)Pericardium with pericardial fluid
(3)Lacteals
(4)Hepatic portal vein
31.Identify the correct statements about plasma:
A. Plasma is straw-coloured and viscous.
B. Plasma constitutes nearly 45% of blood.
C. Water forms 90-92% of plasma.
D. Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are major plasma proteins.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
32.Choose the correct statements:
A. Fibrinogens help in osmotic balance.
B. Globulins are primarily involved in defence mechanisms.
C. Albumins help in osmotic balance.
D. Serum is plasma without clotting factors.
(1)A and B only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
33.Which numerical statements are correct?
A. Formed elements constitute nearly 45% of blood.
B. RBC count is about 5-5.5 million/mm3 in a healthy adult man.
C. Haemoglobin is 12-16 g per 100 mL blood in a healthy individual.
D. RBC life span is about 80 days.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
34.Given the WBC groups:
A. Neutrophils are granulocytes.
B. Eosinophils are agranulocytes.
C. Basophils are granulocytes.
D. Lymphocytes and monocytes are agranulocytes.
Choose the correct option.
(1)A, B and D only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
35.Identify the correct statements about WBCs:
A. Neutrophils constitute 60-65% of total WBCs.
B. Basophils are 0.5-1%.
C. Monocytes are 6-8% and are phagocytic.
D. Neutrophils and eosinophils are the phagocytic pair named in NCERT.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
36.Which statements are correct?
A. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin.
B. Eosinophils resist infections and are associated with allergic reactions.
C. Lymphocytes occur as B and T forms.
D. Only B lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
37.Read the statements:
A. Platelets are also called thrombocytes.
B. Platelets are cell fragments from megakaryocytes.
C. Platelets release substances involved in clotting.
D. Reduced platelet number may cause excessive blood loss.
Correct statements are:
(1)A and B only
(2)B and C only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
38.Which ABO statements are correct?
A. Group A has anti-B in plasma.
B. Group B has anti-A in plasma.
C. Group AB has A and B antigens but no natural anti-A/anti-B antibodies.
D. Group O has A and B antigens but no antibodies.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
39.For safe donor compatibility in ABO blood groups:
A. A recipient can receive A or O.
B. B recipient can receive B or O.
C. AB recipient can receive AB, A, B or O.
D. O recipient can receive AB if Rh matched.
Choose the correct option.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
40.In Rh incompatibility:
A. It classically involves Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive foetus.
B. In first pregnancy, foetal Rh antigens are usually not exposed because placenta separates bloods.
C. During first delivery, maternal exposure to foetal Rh-positive blood may occur.
D. In subsequent pregnancy, maternal anti-Rh antibodies may destroy foetal RBCs.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
41.Identify the correct statements:
A. Erythroblastosis foetalis may cause anaemia and jaundice.
B. It may be fatal to the foetus.
C. It is prevented by giving anti-Rh antibodies to the foetus before first delivery.
D. Anti-Rh antibodies are administered to the mother immediately after first delivery.
(1)A, B and D only
(2)A and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
42.Which statements about coagulation are correct?
A. Clotting prevents excessive loss of blood.
B. The clot is mainly fibrin threads trapping dead/damaged formed elements.
C. Thrombin converts inactive fibrinogen into fibrin.
D. Prothrombin is formed from thrombokinase.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
43.Arrange the logic of clotting from the given statements:
A. Thrombokinase enzyme complex is required.
B. Thrombin is formed from prothrombin.
C. Fibrin is formed from fibrinogen.
D. Calcium ions play an important role in clotting.
Which set is factually correct?
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and C only
(3)B and D only
(4)C only
44.Select correct statements about tissue fluid/lymph formation:
A. Small water-soluble substances leave capillaries into tissue spaces.
B. Larger proteins and most formed elements remain in blood vessels.
C. Tissue fluid has same mineral distribution as plasma.
D. Exchange between blood and cells occurs directly without tissue fluid.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
45.Which are correct for lymph?
A. It is the fluid in lymphatic system.
B. It is colourless.
C. It contains specialised lymphocytes.
D. It absorbs fats through lacteals in intestinal villi.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
46.Choose the correct statements:
A. Arthropods and molluscs have open circulation.
B. Annelids and chordates have closed circulation.
C. Closed circulation is less regulated than open circulation.
D. Open circulation sends blood into sinuses/open spaces.
(1)A, B and D only
(2)A and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
47.Which statements on vertebrate hearts are correct?
A. Fishes have one atrium and one ventricle.
B. Amphibians and reptiles except crocodiles have two atria and one ventricle.
C. Crocodiles, birds and mammals have two atria and two ventricles.
D. All reptiles have three-chambered hearts.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
48.Identify the correct circulation statements:
A. Fishes have single circulation.
B. Amphibians/reptiles have incomplete double circulation due to mixing in a single ventricle.
C. Birds/mammals have complete double circulation with no mixing.
D. Fishes oxygenate blood in lungs before body circulation.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
49.Human circulatory system/heart statements:
A. Human circulatory system is also called blood vascular system.
B. The heart is mesodermally derived.
C. The heart lies in thoracic cavity between lungs, slightly tilted left.
D. The heart is protected by pericardium enclosing pericardial fluid.
(1)A and B only
(2)B and C only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
50.Select correct heart anatomy statements:
A. Atria are relatively small upper chambers.
B. Ventricles are larger lower chambers.
C. Inter-atrial septum is thick-walled and inter-ventricular septum is thin.
D. AV septum separates atrium and ventricle of same side.
(1)A, B and D only
(2)A and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
51.Which valve statements are correct?
A. Tricuspid valve guards right AV opening.
B. Bicuspid/mitral valve guards left AV opening.
C. Semilunar valves guard openings into pulmonary artery and aorta.
D. Valves normally permit backflow during ventricular diastole.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
52.Choose the correct statements:
A. SAN lies in the right upper corner of the right atrium.
B. AVN lies in the lower left corner of the right atrium near AV septum.
C. AV bundle arises from SAN and bypasses AVN.
D. Purkinje fibres are distributed through ventricular musculature.
(1)A, B and D only
(2)A and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
53.Which are correct about nodal tissue?
A. It is autoexcitable.
B. SAN can generate 70-75 action potentials per minute.
C. SAN initiates and maintains rhythmic contraction.
D. Average normal heart beat is 120 beats/min.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
54.At the beginning of cardiac cycle:
A. All chambers are in joint diastole.
B. Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open.
C. Semilunar valves are closed.
D. Atrial systole contributes about 70% of ventricular filling according to NCERT.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
55.Select the correct cardiac cycle statements:
A. Blood from pulmonary veins flows into left ventricle through left atrium.
B. Blood from vena cava flows into right ventricle through right atrium.
C. AVN and AV bundle conduct impulses to the ventricular side.
D. Ventricular systole coincides with atrial systole.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
56.Which pressure-valve events are correct?
A. Increased ventricular pressure closes tricuspid and bicuspid valves.
B. Further ventricular pressure opens semilunar valves.
C. Ventricular diastole closes semilunar valves.
D. Semilunar valve closure prevents backflow into atria.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
57.Choose correct cardiac output facts:
A. Cardiac cycle includes systole and diastole of atria and ventricles.
B. At 72 beats/min, cycle duration is 0.8 s.
C. Stroke volume is about 70 mL per ventricle per cycle.
D. Cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate.
(1)A, B and D only
(2)B and C only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
58.Heart sound statements:
A. Lub is associated with closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves.
B. Dub is associated with closure of semilunar valves.
C. Heart sounds are clinically diagnostic.
D. Lub occurs due to opening of semilunar valves.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
59.About standard ECG:
A. ECG is graphical representation of electrical activity during cardiac cycle.
B. Standard ECG uses three electrical leads.
C. One lead is attached to each wrist and one to left ankle.
D. Peaks are labelled from A to E.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
60.Which ECG interpretations are correct?
A. P-wave represents atrial depolarisation.
B. QRS complex represents ventricular depolarisation.
C. T-wave represents ventricular repolarisation.
D. Counting P waves is the NCERT-specified method to determine heart beat rate.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
61.Choose correct blood vessel layer statements:
A. Tunica intima is inner squamous endothelium.
B. Tunica media has smooth muscle and elastic fibres.
C. Tunica externa has fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres.
D. Tunica media is comparatively thick in veins.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
62.Which pathway descriptions are correct?
A. Pulmonary circulation: right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium.
B. Systemic circulation: left ventricle → aorta → tissues → vena cava → right atrium.
C. Pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood in this pathway.
D. Aorta receives blood from the right ventricle.
Correct statements are:
(1)A and B only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
63.Select correct statements:
A. Systemic circulation supplies nutrients and O2 to tissues.
B. Hepatic portal system connects digestive tract and liver.
C. Hepatic portal vein carries blood from intestine to liver before systemic circulation.
D. Coronary system is for blood circulation to and from cardiac musculature.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and C only
(2)B and D only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
64.Cardiac regulation statements:
A. The heart is myogenic due to intrinsic regulation by nodal tissue.
B. Medulla oblongata can moderate cardiac function via ANS.
C. Sympathetic signals increase heart rate and ventricular contraction strength.
D. Parasympathetic signals increase cardiac output.
E. Adrenal medullary hormones can increase cardiac output.
(1)A, B, C and E only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B, D and E only
(4)A, B, C, D and E
65.Which blood pressure statements are correct?
A. Normal reference is 120/80 mm Hg.
B. 120 mm Hg is systolic/pumping pressure.
C. 80 mm Hg is diastolic/resting pressure.
D. Repeated 130/70 is defined as hypertension in the chapter.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
66.CAD/atherosclerosis statements:
A. It affects vessels supplying blood to heart muscle.
B. Deposits of calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues narrow arterial lumen.
C. It is caused by low platelet count only.
D. It directly refers to a stoppage of heart beat.
Correct statements are:
(1)A and B only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
67.Angina statements:
A. It is also called angina pectoris.
B. It presents as acute chest pain when not enough O2 reaches heart muscle.
C. It is more common among middle-aged and elderly.
D. It is the same as cardiac arrest.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
68.Heart failure statements:
A. It means the heart is not pumping effectively enough for body needs.
B. It may be called congestive heart failure due to lung congestion.
C. It is identical to heart attack.
D. Cardiac arrest means heart stops beating.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and D only
(2)A and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
69.In Figure 15.1 formed elements, which labels correspond to formed elements/categories mentioned in the chapter?
A. RBC
B. Platelets
C. T lymphocyte
D. B lymphocyte
E. Albumin
Choose the correct set.
(1)A, B, C and D only
(2)A, B and E only
(3)C, D and E only
(4)A, B, C, D and E
70.Based on the human heart/nodal tissue diagram and text, which structures belong to the conduction pathway?
A. SAN
B. AVN
C. AV bundle
D. Purkinje fibres
E. Lacteals
Correct set:
(1)A, B, C and D only
(2)A and E only
(3)B, C and E only
(4)A, B, C, D and E
71.For ECG waves, choose the correct set:
A. P - atrial depolarisation.
B. QRS - ventricular depolarisation.
C. T - ventricular repolarisation.
D. T - atrial depolarisation.
Correct option:
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
72.Which valve-state statements are correct?
A. In joint diastole, AV valves are open and semilunar valves closed.
B. During atrial systole, SAN-generated impulse causes atrial contraction.
C. During ventricular systole, AV valves close.
D. During ventricular diastole, semilunar valves close.
Correct statements are:
(1)A and B only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
73.Which statement pair is correct?
A. All vertebrates have complete double circulation.
B. Birds and mammals have separate circulatory pathways with no mixing.
C. Fish heart pumps deoxygenated blood which is oxygenated by gills.
D. Amphibian single ventricle causes incomplete mixing-free circulation.
(1)A and D only
(2)B and C only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
74.Which statements best distinguish lymph from blood/plasma based on the chapter?
A. Lymph forms from tissue fluid collected by lymphatic vessels.
B. Lymph is colourless and contains specialised lymphocytes.
C. Lymph is identical to blood in formed elements and protein content.
D. Lymph participates in fat absorption through lacteals.
Correct statements are:
(1)A, B and D only
(2)A and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
75.Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(1)Fibrinogen - coagulation
(2)Globulin - defence
(3)Albumin - osmotic balance
(4)Albumin - major carrier of respiratory gases in RBCs
76.All are mentioned as plasma constituents/solutes except:
(1)Na+ and Ca2+
(2)Glucose and amino acids
(3)Lipids
(4)Megakaryocytes
77.Which statement is not true for formed elements?
(1)They include erythrocytes, leucocytes and platelets.
(2)They constitute nearly 45% of blood.
(3)They are collectively called serum.
(4)They include RBCs and WBCs.
78.Which count is incorrectly paired?
(1)RBC - 5 to 5.5 million/mm3
(2)WBC - 6000 to 8000/mm3
(3)Platelets - 150,000 to 350,000/mm3
(4)Neutrophils - 2 to 3% of WBCs
79.Which statement is not correct about RBCs?
(1)Most mammalian RBCs are biconcave.
(2)Most mammalian RBCs are devoid of nucleus.
(3)They contain iron-containing haemoglobin.
(4)They are the least abundant formed elements.
80.Which combination is incorrectly classified?
(1)Neutrophil - granulocyte
(2)Basophil - granulocyte
(3)Monocyte - granulocyte
(4)Lymphocyte - agranulocyte
81.Which is not true?
(1)Basophils participate in inflammatory reactions.
(2)Eosinophils are associated with allergic reactions.
(3)B and T lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses.
(4)Platelets are responsible for respiratory gas transport.
82.Which ABO entry is incorrect?
(1)A: antigen A, anti-B
(2)B: antigen B, anti-A
(3)AB: no antigens, anti-A and anti-B
(4)O: no A/B antigens, anti-A and anti-B
83.Which statement is incorrect?
(1)O group can donate to any ABO group.
(2)AB group can accept from AB, A, B and O.
(3)AB group is universal recipient.
(4)O group has A and B antigens.
84.Which event is out of sequence in Rh incompatibility?
(1)First pregnancy usually keeps maternal and foetal blood separated by placenta.
(2)During first delivery, small exposure to foetal Rh+ blood can occur.
(3)Mother forms anti-Rh antibodies after exposure.
(4)Maternal antibodies destroy foetal RBCs mainly during the first pregnancy before any exposure.
85.In blood clotting, which conversion/requirement is wrongly stated?
(1)Fibrinogen → fibrin by thrombin
(2)Prothrombin → thrombin
(3)Thrombokinase complex required for prothrombin conversion
(4)Fibrin → fibrinogen by calcium ions
86.Which statement is incorrect about tissue fluid/lymph?
(1)Tissue fluid forms when small water-soluble substances leave capillaries.
(2)Larger proteins and most formed elements remain in vessels.
(3)Lymph is the fluid in the lymphatic system.
(4)Lymph is red due to haemoglobin-rich RBCs.
87.Which organism-group pairing is not correct according to the chapter?
(1)Arthropods - open circulation
(2)Molluscs - open circulation
(3)Annelids - closed circulation
(4)Chordates - open circulation
88.Which statement is false?
(1)Fish heart has an atrium and a ventricle.
(2)Amphibians have two atria and one ventricle.
(3)Crocodiles have a four-chambered heart.
(4)Birds have a three-chambered heart.
89.Which is not a correct circulation description?
(1)Fish - single circulation
(2)Amphibians/reptiles - incomplete double circulation
(3)Birds/mammals - double circulation
(4)Mammals - mixed blood in single ventricle
90.Which valve-location pair is wrong?
(1)Tricuspid - right atrio-ventricular opening
(2)Bicuspid/mitral - left atrio-ventricular opening
(3)Semilunar - openings into pulmonary artery and aorta
(4)Tricuspid - left ventricle to aorta
91.Which location is incorrectly matched?
(1)SAN - right upper corner of right atrium
(2)AVN - lower left corner of right atrium near AV septum
(3)SAN - left ventricle wall
(4)AVN - close to atrio-ventricular septum
92.Which is not true about SAN?
(1)It has autoexcitable nodal musculature.
(2)It can generate 70-75 action potentials/min.
(3)It is called pacemaker.
(4)It is the least active part of nodal system.
93.Which cardiac cycle event is incorrectly matched?
(1)Joint diastole - AV valves open
(2)Ventricular systole - AV valves close
(3)Increased ventricular pressure - semilunar valves open
(4)Ventricular diastole - semilunar valves remain open to allow backflow
94.Which numerical value is not from the chapter?
(1)Heart rate about 72/min
(2)Cardiac cycle about 0.8 s
(3)Stroke volume about 70 mL
(4)Cardiac output about 500 mL/min
95.Which heart sound pairing is incorrect?
(1)Lub - closure of tricuspid valve
(2)Lub - closure of bicuspid valve
(3)Dub - closure of semilunar valves
(4)Dub - closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
96.Which ECG statement is incorrect?
(1)P wave represents atrial depolarisation.
(2)QRS complex represents ventricular depolarisation.
(3)T wave represents ventricular repolarisation.
(4)End of P wave marks end of systole according to NCERT.
97.Which vessel-layer statement is not correct?
(1)Tunica intima has squamous endothelium.
(2)Tunica media includes smooth muscle and elastic fibres.
(3)Tunica externa has fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres.
(4)Tunica media is comparatively thicker in veins than arteries as per NCERT.
98.Which statement is incorrect regarding cardiac regulation?
(1)Sympathetic nerves can increase heart rate.
(2)Sympathetic nerves can increase strength of ventricular contraction.
(3)Parasympathetic signals can decrease cardiac output.
(4)Adrenal medullary hormones decrease cardiac output.
99.Which statement is incorrect?
(1)Heart failure is ineffective pumping to meet body needs.
(2)Cardiac arrest means heart stops beating.
(3)Heart attack means sudden heart muscle damage due to inadequate blood supply.
(4)Heart failure, cardiac arrest and heart attack are identical terms.
100.Match List I with List II.
List I: A. Fibrinogen B. Globulin C. Albumin D. Serum
List II: i. Osmotic balance ii. Defence iii. Plasma without clotting factors iv. Clotting
(1)A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(2)A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(3)A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
101.Match List I with List II.
A. RBC count B. WBC count C. Platelet count D. Normal heart beat average
i. 72/min ii. 150,000-350,000/mm3 iii. 5-5.5 million/mm3 iv. 6000-8000/mm3
(1)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3)A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(4)A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
102.Match the WBC with its category.
A. Neutrophil B. Monocyte C. Basophil D. Lymphocyte
i. Agranulocyte ii. Granulocyte
(1)A-ii, B-i, C-ii, D-i
(2)A-i, B-ii, C-ii, D-i
(3)A-ii, B-i, C-i, D-ii
(4)A-i, B-i, C-ii, D-ii
103.Match List I and List II.
A. Neutrophils/monocytes B. Basophils C. Eosinophils D. B/T lymphocytes
i. Immune responses ii. Phagocytosis iii. Inflammatory reactions iv. Resist infections/allergy association
(1)A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2)A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3)A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4)A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
104.Match blood group with antigen-antibody pattern.
A. A B. B C. AB D. O
i. No antigen, anti-A and anti-B ii. A and B antigens, no antibody iii. A antigen, anti-B iv. B antigen, anti-A
(1)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3)A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4)A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
105.Match the clotting term with its correct description.
A. Fibrin B. Thrombin C. Prothrombin D. Thrombokinase
i. Inactive precursor of thrombin ii. Network-forming threads iii. Enzyme converting fibrinogen to fibrin iv. Enzyme complex required for thrombin formation
(1)A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2)A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(3)A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4)A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
106.Match circulatory system with example/feature.
A. Open B. Closed C. Sinuses D. Precise regulation
i. Advantage of closed system ii. Open spaces/body cavities iii. Arthropods and molluscs iv. Annelids and chordates
(1)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4)A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
107.Match vertebrate group with heart chambers.
A. Fishes B. Amphibians/reptiles except crocodiles C. Crocodiles D. Birds/mammals
i. Four-chambered ii. Two-chambered iii. Three-chambered
(1)A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-i
(2)A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-i
(3)A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-i
(4)A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
108.Match valves/events.
A. Tricuspid B. Bicuspid/mitral C. Semilunar valves D. Dub sound
i. Left AV opening ii. Closure of semilunar valves iii. Right AV opening iv. Pulmonary artery/aorta openings
(1)A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2)A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3)A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4)A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
109.Match conduction structure with description.
A. SAN B. AVN C. AV bundle D. Purkinje fibres
i. Lower left corner of right atrium near AV septum ii. Minute fibres in ventricular musculature iii. Right upper corner of right atrium iv. Continues from AVN and divides into right/left bundles
(1)A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2)A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4)A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
110.Match cardiac cycle event with description.
A. Joint diastole B. Atrial systole C. Ventricular systole D. Ventricular diastole
i. AV valves close ii. All four chambers relaxed iii. Semilunar valves close iv. Atria contract simultaneously
(1)A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2)A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3)A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
111.Match cardiac term with value/definition.
A. Cardiac cycle duration B. Stroke volume C. Cardiac output formula D. Average cardiac output
i. 5 L/min ii. 70 mL/ventricle/cycle iii. 0.8 s iv. Stroke volume × heart rate
(1)A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2)A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(3)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4)A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
112.Match ECG wave with meaning.
A. P wave B. QRS complex C. T wave D. End of T wave
i. End of systole ii. Atrial depolarisation iii. Ventricular depolarisation iv. Ventricular repolarisation
(1)A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2)A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(3)A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4)A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
113.Match blood vessel layer.
A. Tunica intima B. Tunica media C. Tunica externa D. Veins
i. Smooth muscle and elastic fibres ii. Comparatively thin tunica media iii. Squamous endothelium iv. Fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres
(1)A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2)A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4)A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
114.Match pathway/system with description.
A. Pulmonary circulation B. Systemic circulation C. Hepatic portal system D. Coronary system
i. Blood to/from cardiac musculature ii. Digestive tract to liver connection iii. Right ventricle to lungs to left atrium iv. Left ventricle to tissues to right atrium
(1)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4)A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
115.Match regulatory influence with effect.
A. Sympathetic nerves B. Parasympathetic signals C. Adrenal medullary hormones D. Medulla oblongata centre
i. Moderates through ANS ii. Increase cardiac output iii. Decrease heart rate/conduction/output iv. Increase heart rate/ventricular contraction/output
(1)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3)A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4)A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
116.Match disorder with description.
A. Hypertension B. CAD/atherosclerosis C. Angina D. Heart failure
i. Acute chest pain due to insufficient O2 to heart muscle ii. Ineffective pumping to meet body needs iii. BP higher than normal 120/80 iv. Narrowing of vessels supplying heart muscle
(1)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2)A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3)A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(4)A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
117.Match term with meaning.
A. Heart failure B. Cardiac arrest C. Heart attack D. Congestive heart failure
i. Heart stops beating ii. Lung congestion is a main symptom iii. Ineffective pumping iv. Heart muscle damaged by inadequate blood supply
(1)A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2)A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4)A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
118.Assertion A: Plasma constitutes nearly 55% of blood. Reason R: Formed elements constitute nearly 45% of blood.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
119.Assertion A: Plasma without clotting factors is called serum. Reason R: Coagulation factors are present in plasma in inactive form.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
120.Assertion A: Leucocytes are known as white blood cells. Reason R: They lack haemoglobin and are colourless.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
121.Assertion A: Neutrophils are the most abundant WBCs. Reason R: Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic cells.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
122.Assertion A: A marked reduction in platelet number can lead to excessive blood loss. Reason R: Platelets release substances involved in coagulation.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
123.Assertion A: AB group is called universal recipient in ABO grouping. Reason R: AB group plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
124.Assertion A: Rh incompatibility usually harms the foetus more in subsequent pregnancies than the first one. Reason R: During the first pregnancy the foetal and maternal bloods are normally well separated by placenta.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
125.Assertion A: Blood clotting prevents excessive loss of blood. Reason R: A clot is mainly fibrin threads trapping dead and damaged formed elements.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
126.Assertion A: Closed circulation is considered more advantageous. Reason R: In closed circulation, flow of fluid can be more precisely regulated.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
127.Assertion A: Crocodiles are grouped with birds and mammals for heart chamber number. Reason R: Crocodiles have a four-chambered heart.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
128.Assertion A: Heart valves prevent backward flow. Reason R: Valves allow blood flow only from atria to ventricles and ventricles to pulmonary artery/aorta.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
129.Assertion A: SAN is called the pacemaker of the heart. Reason R: SAN generates the maximum number of action potentials and initiates/maintains rhythmic contraction.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
130.Assertion A: Cardiac output can change if heart rate changes. Reason R: Cardiac output equals stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
131.Assertion A: Counting QRS complexes over a time period can determine heart beat rate. Reason R: QRS complex represents ventricular depolarisation related to ventricular contraction.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
132.Assertion A: The heart is called myogenic. Reason R: Sympathetic nerves increase rate and strength of ventricular contraction.
(1)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both Assertion A and Reason R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3)Assertion A is true but Reason R is false.
(4)Assertion A is false but Reason R is true.
133.In the formed-elements diagram, which labelled item is not a WBC?
(1)Eosinophil
(2)Basophil
(3)Platelets
(4)Monocyte
134.A student identifies B lymphocyte and T lymphocyte in Figure 15.1. Which statement is correct?
(1)Both are granulocytes.
(2)Both are agranulocytes involved in immune responses.
(3)Both secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin.
(4)Both are fragments from megakaryocytes.
135.From Table 15.1, a recipient has no anti-A and no anti-B antibodies. Which donor groups are compatible?
(1)Only O
(2)A and O only
(3)B and O only
(4)AB, A, B and O
136.From Table 15.1, a donor blood sample has no A/B antigen on RBCs. Which recipient group is classically safe in ABO terms?
(1)Only O
(2)Only AB
(3)A, B, AB and O
(4)Only A
137.Which sequence correctly represents a key part of clot formation?
(1)Prothrombin → thrombokinase → fibrinogen → thrombin
(2)Prothrombin → thrombin → fibrinogen → fibrin
(3)Fibrin → fibrinogen → thrombin → prothrombin
(4)Thrombin → prothrombin → fibrin → fibrinogen
138.Correct sequence during the cardiac cycle is:
(1)Joint diastole → SAN action potential → atrial systole → AVN/AV bundle conduction → ventricular systole
(2)Ventricular systole → joint diastole → SAN action potential → atrial systole → semilunar closure
(3)SAN action potential → ventricular diastole → atrial diastole → atrial systole only
(4)Joint diastole → semilunar valve opening → SAN action potential → atrial systole
139.In the heart diagram, a signal travelling from AVN to ventricular musculature should pass through:
(1)Pulmonary veins only
(2)AV bundle and Purkinje fibres
(3)Lacteals and hepatic portal vein
(4)Tunica media and tunica externa
140.In a standard ECG diagram, which peak/complex corresponds to the event immediately associated with beginning of systole?
(1)P wave only
(2)QRS complex; contraction starts shortly after Q
(3)T wave; contraction starts after T ends
(4)Flat line between T and next P
141.A diagram shows blood leaving the left ventricle into the aorta. Which route is being shown?
(1)Pulmonary circulation
(2)Systemic circulation
(3)Hepatic portal system only
(4)Coronary venous return
142.A diagram shows deoxygenated blood leaving right ventricle through pulmonary artery and returning oxygenated through pulmonary veins. It represents:
(1)Systemic circulation
(2)Pulmonary circulation
(3)Open circulation
(4)Hepatic portal circulation
143.Select the option containing only correct pairs:
A. Fibrinogen - coagulation
B. Globulin - defence
C. Albumin - osmotic balance
D. Serum - plasma with all clotting factors
(1)A and B only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
144.Select the option with correct statements only:
A. Neutrophils are granulocytes and most abundant WBCs.
B. Basophils are least abundant WBCs.
C. Monocytes are agranulocytes and phagocytic.
D. Lymphocytes are granulocytes and secrete heparin.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
145.Choose the option with correct Rh facts only:
A. Rh antigen resembles one in Rhesus monkeys.
B. About 80% humans have Rh antigen.
C. Rh-negative person exposed to Rh-positive blood forms specific antibodies.
D. Rh grouping need not be matched before transfusion.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
146.Select only correct human-heart statements:
A. Human heart has two atria and two ventricles.
B. Inter-ventricular septum is thick-walled.
C. Tricuspid valve guards right AV opening.
D. Bicuspid valve guards opening of right ventricle into pulmonary artery.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
147.Which ECG conclusions are valid?
A. P wave indicates atrial depolarisation.
B. QRS counting can be used for heart beat rate.
C. End of T wave marks end of systole.
D. Any deviation from standard shape for a given lead may indicate disease.
(1)A and B only
(2)B and C only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
148.A healthy person has stroke volume 70 mL and heart rate 72/min. The expected cardiac output is closest to:
(1)500 mL/min
(2)1000 mL/min
(3)5000 mL/min
(4)50,000 mL/min
149.If a heart completes 72 cardiac cycles in one minute, duration of one cycle is approximately:
(1)0.08 s
(2)0.8 s
(3)1.2 s
(4)7.2 s
150.An individual repeatedly shows blood pressure 145/92 mm Hg. Based on the chapter, this suggests:
(1)Normal blood pressure
(2)Hypertension
(3)Angina only
(4)Cardiac arrest

Answer Key

12
22
33
43
52
63
73
82
92
102
111
124
132
141
152
162
172
183
192
201
213
222
232
243
252
262
272
282
293
302
312
322
331
342
352
361
374
381
391
404
411
421
431
441
454
461
471
481
494
501
511
521
531
541
551
561
574
581
591
601
611
621
634
641
651
661
671
681
691
701
711
724
732
741
754
764
773
784
794
803
814
823
834
844
854
864
874
884
894
904
913
924
934
944
954
964
974
984
994
1001
1011
1021
1031
1041
1051
1061
1071
1081
1091
1101
1111
1121
1131
1141
1151
1161
1171
1182
1192
1201
1212
1221
1233
1241
1252
1261
1271
1281
1291
1301
1311
1322
1333
1342
1354
1363
1372
1381
1392
1402
1412
1422
1432
1441
1451
1461
1474
1483
1492
1502