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NEET ]1[ Contd...

NEET UG Biology Chapter11

Duration: 180 minutesTotal Marks: 600Questions: 150Negative Marking: -1

Instructions:

  1. Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
  2. Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
  3. Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
  4. Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Which statement best defines ecology as used in this chapter?
(1)Study of interactions among organisms and between organisms and their physical abiotic environment
(2)Study of only internal anatomy of organisms
(3)Study of only molecular heredity in isolated cells
(4)Study of only classification of plants and animals
2.Which set correctly gives the four levels of biological organisation mainly studied in ecology here?
(1)Macromolecules, cells, tissues and organs
(2)Organisms, populations, communities and biomes
(3)Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems
(4)Organisms, ecosystems, biosphere and molecules
3.According to the chapter, what is a population?
(1)Different species living anywhere on Earth without a defined area
(2)A group of organs cooperating inside a body
(3)Individuals of a species in a defined geographical area sharing/competing for similar resources and potentially interbreeding
(4)Only sexually reproducing individuals kept in a laboratory
4.Which example is given as a population?
(1)All organisms in a forest ecosystem
(2)All abiotic factors in a pond
(3)All trophic levels of a grassland
(4)Bacteria in a culture plate
5.Which population attribute is absent at the level of an individual?
(1)Birth rate
(2)Birth
(3)Death
(4)Sex as male or female
6.A pond had 20 lotus plants and 8 new plants were added in a year. What is the per capita birth rate?
(1)0.8 offspring per lotus per year
(2)0.4 offspring per lotus per year
(3)28 offspring per lotus per year
(4)8 offspring per lotus per year
7.Four fruitflies die in a laboratory population of 40 in one week. What is the death rate for that period?
(1)0.4 individuals per fruitfly per week
(2)10 individuals per fruitfly per week
(3)0.1 individuals per fruitfly per week
(4)4 individuals per fruitfly per week
8.What does the age pyramid represent?
(1)Only total population density
(2)Only the sex ratio of adults
(3)Only number of newborns in a year
(4)Age distribution as percent individuals of a given age or age group
9.Which is NOT one of the growth statuses reflected by age pyramid shape?
(1)Predatory
(2)Growing
(3)Stable
(4)Declining
10.Population size is technically called:
(1)Carrying capacity
(2)Population density
(3)Birth rate
(4)Darwinian fitness
11.For a single huge banyan tree versus many carrot grass plants, which measure may be more meaningful than number?
(1)Only sex ratio
(2)Only birth rate
(3)Percent cover or biomass
(4)Only number of traps
12.Tiger census in national parks is often based on:
(1)Only direct counting of every tiger
(2)Only floral cover
(3)Only birth rate in captivity
(4)Pug marks and fecal pellets
13.Which pair contributes to an increase in population density?
(1)Natality and immigration
(2)Mortality and emigration
(3)Natality and mortality
(4)Immigration and emigration
14.Which pair contributes to a decrease in population density?
(1)Natality and immigration
(2)Mortality and emigration
(3)Natality and mortality
(4)Births and immigration
15.Which equation is correct for population density at time t + 1?
(1)Nt+1 = Nt + [(D + E) – (B + I)]
(2)Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + D) – (I + E)]
(3)Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(4)Nt+1 = K + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
16.Under normal conditions, the most important factors influencing population density are:
(1)Immigration and emigration only
(2)Predation and pesticide only
(3)Sex ratio and age pyramid only
(4)Births and deaths
17.Which condition permits ideal exponential/geometric growth?
(1)Unlimited resources such as food and space
(2)Finite resources reaching carrying capacity
(3)Absence of births and immigration
(4)Only emigration exceeding immigration
18.In the exponential growth equation dN/dt = rN, r refers to:
(1)Carrying capacity
(2)Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(3)Population density at time zero
(4)Number of emigrants
19.The exponential growth curve is:
(1)Sigmoid
(2)Bell-shaped
(3)J-shaped
(4)Age-pyramid shaped
20.The logistic growth curve is:
(1)J-shaped
(2)Linear only
(3)Circular
(4)Sigmoid
21.The maximum number a habitat can support beyond which no further growth is possible is:
(1)Carrying capacity (K)
(2)Intrinsic rate (r)
(3)Natality (B)
(4)Age distribution
22.Which sequence of phases is described in logistic growth?
(1)Asymptote, lag, emigration and immigration
(2)Lag, acceleration, deceleration and asymptote
(3)Birth, death, sex ratio and age pyramid
(4)J phase, geometric phase, crash and extinction only
23.Which organisms are given as examples of breeding only once in their lifetime?
(1)Most birds and mammals
(2)Oysters and pelagic fishes
(3)Pacific salmon fish and bamboo
(4)Cattle egret and grazing cattle
24.Which organisms are given as examples of producing many small-sized offspring?
(1)Birds and mammals
(2)Pacific salmon and bamboo
(3)Koel and crow
(4)Oysters and pelagic fishes
25.Which interaction is represented by +/+?
(1)Mutualism
(2)Competition
(3)Amensalism
(4)Commensalism
26.Which interaction is represented by +/0?
(1)Mutualism
(2)Commensalism
(3)Competition
(4)Parasitism
27.A sparrow eating seed is considered in broad ecological context as:
(1)A parasite
(2)An amensal species
(3)A predator
(4)A mutualist
28.Which plant chemical defence example is linked with Calotropis?
(1)Nicotine only
(2)Caffeine only
(3)Stinging tentacles
(4)Cardiac glycosides
29.Which two barnacles are associated with Connell's field experiments on Scotland's rocky coasts?
(1)Balanus and Chathamalus
(2)Pisaster and Paramecium
(3)Ophrys and bumblebee
(4)Cuscuta and Calotropis
30.Which association represents mycorrhiza?
(1)Fungus with photosynthesising algae only
(2)Fungi with roots of higher plants
(3)Wasp with fig fruit only
(4)Barnacles on whales
31.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Ecology gives a holistic perspective to biology by linking organisms with other organisms and physical habitats at population, community, ecosystem and biosphere levels.
B. Ecology also studies anthropogenic environmental degradation and the socio-political issues raised by it.
C. Ramdeo Misra is revered as the Father of Ecology in India.
D. Ramdeo Misra obtained Ph.D. in Ecology in 1927 under Prof. W. H. Pearsall from Leeds University.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
32.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Ramdeo Misra established ecology teaching and research at the Department of Botany, Delhi University, Varanasi.
B. Misra's research helped understand tropical communities, succession, plant population responses, productivity and nutrient cycling in tropical forest and grassland ecosystems.
C. The National Committee for Environmental Planning and Coordination was established in 1972 and later paved the way for the Ministry of Environment and Forests in 1984.
D. Biological complexity can be investigated at levels such as macromolecules, cells, tissues, organs, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems and biomes.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
33.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. How-type questions seek mechanisms, while why-type questions seek significance of a process.
B. Ecology studies interactions among organisms and between organisms and their only biotic environment.
C. Ecology is concerned with four levels of biological organisation: organisms, populations, communities and biomes.
D. This chapter explores ecology at population levels.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
34.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. A population is a group of individuals of a species living in a well-defined geographical area, sharing or competing for similar resources, potentially interbreeding.
B. Even a group of individuals resulting from asexual reproduction is generally considered a population for ecological studies.
C. The chapter states the opposite of: Examples of populations include cormorants in a wetland, rats in an abandoned dwelling, teakwood trees in a forest tract, bacteria in a culture plate and lotus plants in a pond.
D. Natural selection operates at the population level to evolve desired traits.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A and D only
35.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Population ecology links ecology to population genetics and evolution.
B. A population has attributes that an individual organism does not have.
C. Individuals may have births and deaths, but populations have birth rates and death rates.
D. In a population, birth and death rates refer to total births and total deaths only.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
36.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. If 20 lotus plants produce 8 new plants in a year, birth rate is 20/8 = 2.5 offspring per lotus per year.
B. If 4 individuals die in a population of 40 fruitflies in a week, death rate is 4/40 = 0.1 individuals per fruitfly per week.
C. Sex ratio is a population attribute; an individual is male or female, but a population may have a percentage distribution of males and females.
D. A population at a given time is composed of individuals of different ages.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
37.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Age distribution plotted as percent individuals of a given age or age group gives an age pyramid.
B. Human population density equations generally show age distribution of males and females.
C. The shape of age pyramids reflects whether a population is growing, stable or declining.
D. Population size tells us much about the status of a population in its habitat.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
38.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Ecological processes such as competition, predation and pesticide effects are evaluated by changes in population size.
B. Population size in nature may range from fewer than 10 Siberian cranes at Bharatpur wetlands to millions of Chlamydomonas in a pond.
C. Population size is technically called carrying capacity and is designated as N.
D. Population density need not always be measured in numbers.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A and D only
39.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Total number is generally the most appropriate measure of population density, but can be meaningless or difficult in some cases.
B. For a single huge banyan tree and many carrot grass plants, biomass or percent cover can be more meaningful than numbers.
C. For huge or difficult-to-count populations, total number may not be easily adoptable.
D. For dense bacterial culture in a petri dish, density may be reported using indirect or alternative measures rather than counting every bacterium.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
40.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. The chapter states the opposite of: Relative densities can be sufficient in some ecological investigations.
B. Number of fish caught per trap can serve as a relative measure of fish density in a lake.
C. Tiger census in national parks and tiger reserves is often based on pug marks and fecal pellets.
D. Population size is not static; it changes with time depending on food availability, predation pressure and adverse weather.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
41.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Changes in population density indicate whether a population is flourishing or declining.
B. Population density in a habitat during a period fluctuates due to predation, parasitism, mutualism and commensalism.
C. Natality is the number of births during a given period that are added to the initial density.
D. Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
42.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that enter the habitat from elsewhere during the considered period.
B. Emigration is the number of individuals of the population who leave the habitat and go elsewhere during the considered period.
C. Population density at time t + 1 is Nt+1 = Nt + [(D + E) – (B + I)].
D. Population density increases if births plus immigrants exceed deaths plus emigrants.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A and D only
43.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Under normal conditions, births and deaths are the most important factors influencing population density.
B. Immigration and emigration become important mainly under special conditions, such as colonisation of a new habitat.
C. Growth models ask whether population growth with time follows a specific predictable pattern.
D. Limited food and space are essential for unimpeded population growth.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
44.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. When resources are strictly limited, each species can realise fully its innate potential to grow in number.
B. Under unlimited resources, population grows in an exponential or geometric fashion.
C. If birth rate is b and death rate is d, dN/dt = (b – d) × N.
D. Let (b – d) = r; then dN/dt = rN.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
45.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. r is called intrinsic rate of natural increase and is important for assessing impacts of biotic or abiotic factors on population growth.
B. The r value is not 0.015 for Norway rat, 0.12 for flour beetle and was 0.0205 for human population in India in 1981.
C. Exponential/geometric growth produces a J-shaped curve when N is plotted against time.
D. The integral form of exponential growth is Nt = N0 e^(rt).
(1)A and B only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
46.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. In Nt = N0 e^(rt), Nt is population density after time t, N0 is population density at time zero, r is intrinsic rate and e is base of natural logarithms.
B. A species growing exponentially under unlimited resources can reach enormous population densities in a short time.
C. The chapter states the opposite of: Darwin illustrated that even a slow growing animal such as elephant could reach enormous numbers without checks.
D. The chessboard wheat-grain anecdote demonstrates exponential doubling.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A and D only
47.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. A Paramecium starting with one individual and doubling daily could reach a huge population in 64 days if food and space remain unlimited.
B. No population in nature has unlimited resources for exponential growth.
C. Limited resources lead to competition among individuals; eventually the fittest survive and reproduce.
D. A habitat has resources to support a maximum possible number beyond which no further growth is possible; this limit is intrinsic rate r.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
48.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. A population with limited resources shows emigration, immigration, mortality and natality phases.
B. When population density reaches carrying capacity, the logistic curve approaches an asymptote.
C. Logistic growth produces a sigmoid curve when N is plotted against time.
D. Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth is described by dN/dt = rN[(K–N)/K].
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
49.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. In logistic growth equation, N is population density at time t, r is intrinsic rate, and K is carrying capacity.
B. Since resources are finite for most animal populations, logistic growth is considered less realistic than exponential for most animal populations.
C. Populations evolve to maximise reproductive fitness, also called Darwinian fitness, expressed as high r value.
D. Under selection pressures, organisms evolve towards the most efficient reproductive strategy.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
50.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Some organisms breed only once in their lifetime; examples are Pacific salmon fish and bamboo.
B. Some organisms breed many times during their lifetime; examples are most birds and mammals.
C. Some organisms produce many small-sized offspring; examples include birds and mammals.
D. Some organisms produce few large-sized offspring; examples include birds and mammals.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A and D only
51.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Life history traits evolve in relation to constraints imposed by abiotic and biotic components of habitat.
B. No natural habitat on earth is inhabited by only a single species.
C. For any species, the minimal requirement is at least one more species on which it can feed.
D. Even plants need no soil microbes for decomposition and nutrient return, and animal agents for pollination.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
52.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Animals, plants and microbes interact in many ways to form a single isolated organism.
B. Interspecific interactions arise from populations of two different species.
C. Interspecific interactions may be beneficial, detrimental or neutral to one or both species.
D. In NCERT interaction signs, + means benefit, - means harm and 0 means neutral.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
53.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Mutualism is +/+; competition is -/-; predation is +/-; parasitism is +/-; commensalism is +/0; amensalism is -/0.
B. In predation and parasitism, one species benefits while the other is not harmed; predator/prey and parasite/host respectively.
C. Predation, parasitism and commensalism share the feature that interacting species live closely together.
D. Predation transfers energy fixed by plants to higher trophic levels.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
54.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. A sparrow eating seeds is also a predator; herbivores are broadly similar to predators in ecological context.
B. Predators keep prey populations under control and prevent ecosystem instability.
C. Invasive exotic species may spread rapidly because natural predators are abundant in the invaded land.
D. Prickly pear cactus introduced in Australia was controlled using a cactus-feeding moth from its natural habitat.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A and D only
55.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Biological control of agricultural pests is based on predators regulating prey populations.
B. Predators can maintain species diversity by reducing competition among prey species.
C. Removal of Pisaster starfish from intertidal areas led to extinction of more than 10 invertebrate species within a year due to interspecific competition.
D. A too-efficient predator may overexploit prey; predator survival is unaffected by prey extinction due to lack of food.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
56.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Prey defences include cryptic colouration/resource partitioning in insects and frogs and poisonous traits avoided by predators.
B. Monarch butterfly is distasteful to birds because of a chemical acquired during caterpillar stage from poisonous weed.
C. For plants, herbivores are predators; about 25 percent of insects are phytophagous.
D. Plants have evolved morphological and chemical defences against herbivores because they cannot run away.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
57.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Thorns in Acacia and Cactus are common morphological plant defences.
B. Plant chemical defences can always nourish herbivores, inhibit feeding/digestion, disrupt reproduction or kill them.
C. Calotropis produces poisonous cardiac glycosides, so cattle and goats do not browse on it.
D. Nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine and opium are plant chemicals produced as defences against grazers and browsers.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
58.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Interspecific competition is a potent force in organic evolution according to Darwin's struggle for existence and survival of the fittest.
B. Competition can occur between unrelated species for the same resource, such as flamingoes and resident fishes competing for zooplankton in shallow South American lakes.
C. Resources must always be limiting for competition to occur; interference can reduce feeding efficiency even when resources are abundant.
D. Competition is best defined as a process in which fitness of one species, measured by r, is significantly lower in the presence of another species.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A and D only
59.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Gause showed in laboratory experiments that with limited resources, competitively superior species can eliminate the other.
B. Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced, apparently due to goats' greater browsing efficiency.
C. Competitive release occurs when a species restricted by a superior competitor expands its range after that competitor is removed.
D. Connell showed that Chathamalus excludes larger Balanus from the intertidal zone on rocky sea coasts of Scotland.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
60.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. The chapter states the opposite of: Herbivores and plants generally appear more adversely affected by competition than carnivores.
B. Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle says two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot coexist indefinitely; the inferior one is eventually eliminated.
C. Competitive exclusion may be true if resources are limiting, but not otherwise; newer studies do not support gross generalisations.
D. Species facing competition may evolve mechanisms promoting coexistence instead of exclusion.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
61.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Resource partitioning can reduce competition by different feeding times or foraging patterns.
B. MacArthur showed five closely related cactus species on the same tree coexist due to behavioural differences in foraging activities.
C. Parasitism evolved in many taxonomic groups because it provides free lodging and meals.
D. Many parasites are host-specific and can parasitise only a single host species.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
62.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Host and parasite often co-evolve; parasite must counter host mechanisms of rejection or resistance.
B. Parasite adaptations include loss of unnecessary sense organs, adhesive organs or suckers, loss of digestive system and high reproductive capacity.
C. Parasite life cycles may be complex and involve one or two only age pyramids.
D. Human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts, a snail and a fish.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A and D only
63.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Malarial parasite needs a mosquito vector to spread to other hosts.
B. Parasites may reduce host survival, growth and reproduction, reduce host population density and make host vulnerable to predation.
C. Ectoparasites feed on the external surface of the host; examples include lice on humans and ticks on dogs.
D. Many marine fish are infested with ectoparasitic mycorrhizae.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
64.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Cuscuta is a parasitic plant on hedge plants; it has developed more chlorophyll and leaves and derives nutrition from host plant.
B. Female mosquito is not considered a parasite although it needs blood for reproduction.
C. Endoparasites live inside the host body at sites like liver, kidney, lungs and red blood cells.
D. Endoparasites have complex life cycles, extreme specialisation, simplified morphology/anatomy and high reproductive potential.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
65.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Brood parasitism occurs when a parasitic bird lays eggs in the host nest and lets the host incubate them.
B. Eggs of parasitic birds differ sharply from host eggs in size and colour to reduce detection and ejection by host.
C. Koel and crow during breeding season are an example context for brood parasitism.
D. Commensalism is interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefited.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
66.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Examples of commensalism include orchid epiphyte on mango and barnacles on whale.
B. Cattle egret benefits from grazing cattle because cattle stir up insects from vegetation, while cattle are unaffected.
C. Clown fish gains protection among pug marks of sea anemone, while anemone appears unaffected.
D. Mutualism confers benefits on both interacting species.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A, B and D only
(4)A and D only
67.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. Lichens represent mutualism between fungus and photosynthesising algae or cyanobacteria.
B. Mycorrhizae are associations between fungi and roots of higher plants; fungi help nutrient absorption and plants provide carbohydrates.
C. Plants use animals for pollination and seed dispersal and provide rewards such as pollen, nectar and fruits.
D. Plant-animal mutualism must be safeguarded against cheaters that perform pollination perfectly every time.
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
68.Identify the correct statements from A-D.

A. In many fig species, each fig has a tight many random unrelated relationships with its pollinator wasp species.
B. A given fig species can be pollinated only by its partner wasp species and no other species.
C. Female wasp uses fig fruit for oviposition and uses developing seeds to nourish larvae while pollinating the inflorescence.
D. Orchids show diverse floral patterns evolved to attract the right pollinator insect and ensure guaranteed pollination.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A and C only
(4)A and D only
69.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)A population is a group of individuals of a species living in a well-defined geographical area, sharing or competing for similar resources, potentially interbreeding.
(2)Even a group of individuals resulting from asexual reproduction is generally considered a population for ecological studies.
(3)The chapter states the opposite of: Examples of populations include cormorants in a wetland, rats in an abandoned dwelling, teakwood trees in a forest tract, bacteria in a culture plate and lotus plants in a pond.
(4)Natural selection operates at the population level to evolve desired traits.
70.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)In a population, birth and death rates refer to per capita births and deaths.
(2)If 20 lotus plants produce 8 new plants in a year, birth rate is 8/20 = 0.4 offspring per lotus per year.
(3)If 4 individuals die in a population of 40 fruitflies in a week, death rate is 4/40 = 0.1 individuals per fruitfly per week.
(4)Sex ratio is not a population attribute; an individual is male or female, but a population may have a percentage distribution of males and females.
71.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Age distribution plotted as percent individuals of a given age or age group gives an population density equation.
(2)The shape of age pyramids reflects whether a population is growing, stable or declining.
(3)Population size tells us much about the status of a population in its habitat.
(4)Population size is technically called population density and is designated as N.
72.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Population density need not always be measured in numbers.
(2)Total number is generally the most appropriate measure of carrying capacity, but can be meaningless or difficult in some cases.
(3)For a single huge banyan tree and many carrot grass plants, biomass or percent cover can be more meaningful than numbers.
(4)Relative densities can be sufficient in some ecological investigations.
73.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Number of fish caught per trap can serve as a relative measure of fish density in a lake.
(2)Tiger census in national parks and tiger reserves is often based on pug marks and fecal pellets.
(3)Population size is not static; it changes with time depending on only sex ratio and age pyramid shape.
(4)Population density in a habitat during a period fluctuates due to natality, mortality, immigration and emigration.
74.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Natality is the number of births during a given period that are added to the initial density.
(2)Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
(3)Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that enter the habitat from elsewhere during the considered period.
(4)Emigration is the number of individuals that enter the habitat and go elsewhere during the considered period.
75.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Population density at time t + 1 is Nt+1 = Nt + [(D + E) – (B + I)].
(2)Population density increases if births plus immigrants exceed deaths plus emigrants.
(3)Under normal conditions, births and deaths are the most important factors influencing population density.
(4)Immigration and emigration become important mainly under special conditions, such as colonisation of a new habitat.
76.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Unlimited food and space are essential for unimpeded population growth.
(2)Under strictly limited resources, population grows in an exponential or geometric fashion.
(3)r is called intrinsic rate of natural increase and is important for assessing impacts of biotic or abiotic factors on population growth.
(4)Exponential/geometric growth produces a J-shaped curve when N is plotted against time.
77.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)The integral form of exponential growth is Nt = N0 e^(rt).
(2)In Nt = N0 e^(rt), Nt is population density after time t, N0 is population density at time zero, r is intrinsic rate and e is base of natural logarithms.
(3)A habitat has resources to support a maximum possible number beyond which no further growth is possible; this limit is intrinsic rate r.
(4)Logistic growth produces a sigmoid curve when N is plotted against time.
78.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth is described by dN/dt = rN[(K–N)/K].
(2)In logistic growth equation, N is population density at time t, r is intrinsic rate, and K is carrying capacity.
(3)Since resources are finite for most animal populations, logistic growth is considered more realistic.
(4)Populations evolve to maximise reproductive fitness, also called Mendelian segregation, expressed as high r value.
79.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Some organisms breed only once in their lifetime; examples are Pacific salmon fish and bamboo.
(2)Some organisms breed many times during their lifetime; examples are most birds and mammals.
(3)Some organisms produce many small-sized offspring; examples include oysters and pelagic fishes.
(4)Some organisms produce few large-sized offspring; examples include birds and mammals.
80.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)No natural habitat on earth is inhabited by only a single species.
(2)Even plants need no soil microbes for decomposition and nutrient return, and animal agents for pollination.
(3)Interspecific interactions arise from populations of two different species.
(4)Mutualism is +/+; competition is -/-; predation is +/-; parasitism is +/-; commensalism is +/0; amensalism is -/0.
81.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)In predation and parasitism, one species benefits while the other is harmed; predator/prey and parasite/host respectively.
(2)Predation, parasitism and commensalism share the feature that interacting species live closely together.
(3)Predation prevents all energy flow from plants to higher trophic levels.
(4)A sparrow eating seeds is also a predator; herbivores are broadly similar to predators in ecological context.
82.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Predators keep prey populations under control and prevent ecosystem instability.
(2)Invasive exotic species may spread rapidly because natural predators are absent in the invaded land.
(3)Prickly pear cactus introduced in Australia was controlled using a cactus-feeding moth from its natural habitat.
(4)Biological control of agricultural pests is based on prey regulating predator evolution only.
83.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Removal of Pisaster starfish from intertidal areas led to extinction of all starfish species within a year due to interspecific competition.
(2)A too-efficient predator may overexploit prey; prey extinction can be followed by predator extinction due to lack of food.
(3)Prey defences include cryptic colouration/camouflage in insects and frogs and poisonous traits avoided by predators.
(4)Monarch butterfly is distasteful to birds because of a chemical acquired during caterpillar stage from poisonous weed.
84.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)For plants, herbivores are predators; about 25 percent of insects are phytophagous.
(2)Plants have evolved morphological and chemical defences against herbivores because they can run away like animals.
(3)Thorns in Acacia and Cactus are common morphological plant defences.
(4)Calotropis produces poisonous cardiac glycosides, so cattle and goats do not browse on it.
85.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Competition can occur between unrelated species for the same resource, such as flamingoes and resident fishes competing for zooplankton in shallow South American lakes.
(2)Resources need not be limiting for competition to occur; interference can reduce feeding efficiency even when resources are abundant.
(3)Competition is best defined as a process in which sex ratio of one species, measured by r, is significantly lower in the presence of another species.
(4)Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle says two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot coexist indefinitely; the inferior one is eventually eliminated.
86.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Competitive exclusion may be true if resources are limiting, but not otherwise; newer studies do not support gross generalisations.
(2)Species facing competition may evolve mechanisms promoting coexistence instead of exclusion.
(3)Resource partitioning can reduce competition by different feeding times or foraging patterns.
(4)MacArthur showed five closely related cactus species on the same tree coexist due to behavioural differences in foraging activities.
87.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Many parasites are always non-specific and can parasitise only a single host species.
(2)Host and parasite often co-evolve; parasite must counter host mechanisms of rejection or resistance.
(3)Parasite adaptations include loss of unnecessary sense organs, adhesive organs or suckers, loss of digestive system and high reproductive capacity.
(4)Parasite life cycles may be complex and involve one or two intermediate hosts or vectors.
88.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts, a snail and a fish.
(2)Malarial parasite needs a mango branch to spread to other hosts.
(3)Ectoparasites feed on the external surface of the host; examples include lice on humans and ticks on dogs.
(4)Cuscuta is a parasitic plant on hedge plants; it has lost chlorophyll and leaves and derives nutrition from host plant.
89.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Female mosquito is not considered a parasite although it needs blood for reproduction.
(2)Endoparasites live inside the host body at sites like liver, kidney, lungs and red blood cells.
(3)Brood parasitism occurs when a parasitic bird lays eggs only in its own nest and incubates them and lets the host incubate them.
(4)Eggs of parasitic birds resemble host eggs in size and colour to reduce detection and ejection by host.
90.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Commensalism is interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefited.
(2)Examples of commensalism include orchid epiphyte on mango and barnacles on whale.
(3)Cattle egret benefits from grazing cattle because cattle stir up insects from vegetation, while cattle are unaffected.
(4)Clown fish gains protection among pug marks of sea anemone, while anemone appears unaffected.
91.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the chapter?
(1)Lichens represent mutualism between fungus and cattle egret.
(2)Mycorrhizae are associations between fungi and roots of higher plants; fungi help nutrient absorption and plants provide carbohydrates.
(3)In many fig species, each fig has a tight one-to-one relationship with its pollinator wasp species.
(4)Ophrys employs sexual deceit; one petal resembles the female bee in size, colour and markings.
92.Which matching is correct for population-growth processes?
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Natality
B. Mortality
C. Immigration
D. Emigration

List-II

I. Individuals enter from elsewhere

II. Deaths during a period

III. Births added to initial density

IV. Individuals leave the habitat
(1)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3)A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4)A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
93.Match the terms used in exponential growth.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. b
B. d
C. r
D. e

List-II

I. Death rate per capita

II. Base of natural logarithms

III. Birth rate per capita

IV. Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(1)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
94.Match growth models with curve/features.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Exponential growth
B. Logistic growth
C. Carrying capacity
D. Limited resources

List-II

I. Sigmoid curve

II. K, maximum supportable population

III. J-shaped curve

IV. Makes logistic model more realistic
(1)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
95.Match reproductive strategies with examples.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Breed once
B. Breed many times
C. Many small offspring
D. Few large offspring

List-II

I. Oysters and pelagic fishes

II. Birds and mammals

III. Pacific salmon and bamboo

IV. Most birds and mammals
(1)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
96.Match population interaction signs with names.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. + / +
B. - / -
C. + / 0
D. - / 0

List-II

I. Competition

II. Amensalism

III. Mutualism

IV. Commensalism
(1)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
97.Match predator-related examples with the correct idea.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Sparrow eating seed
B. Prickly pear cactus in Australia
C. Pisaster removal
D. Monarch butterfly

List-II

I. Distastefulness due to chemical acquired as caterpillar

II. Predator in broad ecological sense

III. Biological control using cactus-feeding moth

IV. Predator maintains diversity
(1)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
98.Match plant defences with examples.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Morphological defence
B. Cardiac glycosides
C. Commercial plant chemicals
D. Phytophagous insects

List-II

I. Nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium

II. Calotropis

III. About 25% of insects

IV. Thorns in Acacia and Cactus
(1)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2)A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
99.Match competition examples/mechanisms.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Flamingoes and fishes
B. Abingdon tortoise
C. Balanus and Chathamalus
D. Warblers

List-II

I. Coexistence due to foraging differences

II. Unrelated species compete for zooplankton

III. Extinction after goats introduced

IV. Connell's intertidal barnacle experiment
(1)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4)A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
100.Match parasitic adaptations/examples.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Human liver fluke
B. Malarial parasite
C. Cuscuta
D. Ectoparasites

List-II

I. Mosquito vector

II. Snail and fish intermediate hosts

III. External surface feeders such as lice/ticks

IV. Lost chlorophyll and leaves
(1)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
101.Match commensalism examples with benefitting species.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Orchid on mango
B. Barnacles on whale
C. Cattle egret with cattle
D. Clown fish with sea anemone

List-II

I. Cattle egret

II. Barnacles

III. Clown fish

IV. Orchid
(1)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
102.Match mutualism examples with key partners/features.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Lichens
B. Mycorrhizae
C. Fig and wasp
D. Ophrys

List-II

I. Sexual deceit

II. Fungus and photosynthesising algae/cyanobacteria

III. Fungi with higher plant roots

IV. One-to-one pollinator relationship
(1)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3)A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4)A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
103.Match figures/processes with their interpretation.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Age pyramid
B. Figure 11.2 population change
C. Figure 11.3 curve a
D. Figure 11.3 curve b

List-II

I. Exponential growth

II. Logistic growth

III. Growing/stable/declining status

IV. B + I versus D + E
(1)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
104.Match scientist/experiment with chapter detail.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Ramdeo Misra
B. Gause
C. Connell
D. MacArthur

List-II

I. Warbler resource partitioning

II. Competitive exclusion in lab

III. Father of Ecology in India

IV. Balanus excludes Chathamalus
(1)A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4)A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
105.Match density estimation examples.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Siberian cranes at Bharatpur
B. Chlamydomonas in a pond
C. Fish caught per trap
D. Tiger census

List-II

I. Relative density measure

II. Pug marks and fecal pellets

III. Population size can be below 10

IV. Population size can be in millions
(1)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
106.Match interaction names with their outcomes.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Commensalism
D. Amensalism

List-II

I. One benefits, other neutral

II. One harmed, other unaffected

III. Predator benefits, prey harmed

IV. Parasite benefits, host harmed
(1)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
107.Match parasite types with correct position/features.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Ectoparasite
B. Endoparasite
C. Brood parasite
D. Female mosquito

List-II

I. Not considered a parasite in the given context

II. External surface feeder

III. Lives inside host body

IV. Lays eggs in host nest
(1)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4)A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
108.Match plant-animal mutualism details.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Pollinator rewards
B. Seed disperser rewards
C. Fig wasp larval food
D. Ophrys petal

List-II

I. Developing seeds

II. Juicy nutritious fruits

III. Resembles female bee

IV. Pollen and nectar
(1)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
109.Match terms with most accurate meaning.
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Darwinian fitness
B. Resource partitioning
C. Competitive release
D. Carrying capacity

List-II

I. Expansion after superior competitor removal

II. Maximum supportable population

III. High r reproductive fitness

IV. Different feeding times/foraging patterns
(1)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
110.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Population ecology links ecology to population genetics and evolution.
Reason R: Natural selection operates at the population level.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
111.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Birth rate and death rate are population attributes, not individual attributes.
Reason R: In population ecology these rates are per capita births and deaths.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
112.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Total number is always the only meaningful measure of population density.
Reason R: A huge banyan tree may be better represented by percent cover or biomass than by number.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
113.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Population density may increase when B + I is greater than D + E.
Reason R: Natality and immigration add individuals to the initial density.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
114.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Immigration and emigration are usually the most important factors under normal conditions.
Reason R: Births and deaths are the most important factors under normal conditions.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
115.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Exponential growth produces a J-shaped curve.
Reason R: Under unlimited resources, a population can grow in an exponential or geometric fashion.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
116.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Logistic growth is considered more realistic for most animal populations.
Reason R: Resources are finite and become limiting sooner or later.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
117.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: The logistic curve becomes asymptotic when population density reaches carrying capacity.
Reason R: K is the carrying capacity of the habitat for a species.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
118.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Pacific salmon fish and bamboo breed many times in their lifetime.
Reason R: Most birds and mammals generally breed many times during their lifetime.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
119.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Predators can maintain species diversity in a community.
Reason R: Predators may reduce the intensity of competition among competing prey species.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
120.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: A too-efficient predator may eventually become extinct after overexploiting its prey.
Reason R: If prey becomes extinct, the predator may lose its food base.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
121.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Competition can occur only between closely related species when resources are limiting.
Reason R: Unrelated flamingoes and fishes can compete for zooplankton in shallow South American lakes.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
122.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle is an unconditional law applicable even when resources are unlimited.
Reason R: Newer studies do not support gross generalisations about competition.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
123.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Many parasites are host-specific.
Reason R: Host and parasite tend to co-evolve through host resistance and parasite counter-adaptation.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
124.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A: Fig-wasp mutualism is a one-to-one relationship in many fig species.
Reason R: The wasp pollinates while searching for suitable egg-laying sites and uses developing seeds for larvae.

Choose the correct answer.
(1)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3)A is true but R is false.
(4)A is false but R is true.
125.Based on Figure 11.1, what does the age pyramid directly represent in a human population?
(1)Percent individuals of age/age group shown separately for males and females
(2)Total biomass of each trophic level
(3)Only births minus deaths during one year
(4)Only immigration and emigration rates
126.In a Figure 11.1 type question, a broad base and progressively narrower upper age groups would most directly indicate:
(1)A growing population
(2)A population with no births
(3)A population represented by carrying capacity K only
(4)A population without sex ratio
127.Figure 11.2 uses B, I, D and E around population density N. Which pair must be placed on the increasing side?
(1)B and I
(2)D and E
(3)B and D
(4)I and E
128.In the population change diagram, if B + I equals D + E, what happens to Nt+1 relative to Nt?
(1)It remains unchanged
(2)It must increase exponentially
(3)It becomes equal to K
(4)It becomes zero
129.In Figure 11.3, curve 'a' is described when resources are not limiting. Which label is correct?
(1)Exponential growth; J-shaped curve
(2)Logistic growth; sigmoid curve
(3)Age pyramid; stable population
(4)Competitive release; expanded distribution
130.In Figure 11.3, curve 'b' is described when resources are limiting. Which label is correct?
(1)Logistic growth; sigmoid curve
(2)Exponential growth; J-shaped curve
(3)Sex ratio curve
(4)Predator-prey extinction curve
131.On the logistic growth diagram, what does K represent?
(1)Carrying capacity
(2)Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(3)Natality only
(4)Number of emigrants
132.Which sequence best matches the process shown by logistic growth before the asymptote?
(1)Lag → acceleration → deceleration → asymptote
(2)Acceleration → lag → asymptote → deceleration
(3)Birth → death → immigration → emigration
(4)Predation → parasitism → commensalism → mutualism
133.Based on Table 11.1, which sign-pair is wrongly matched?
(1)Competition: +/+
(2)Mutualism: +/+
(3)Commensalism: +/0
(4)Amensalism: -/0
134.Based on Table 11.1, predation and parasitism are similar because both are:
(1)+/- interactions
(2)+/+ interactions
(3)-/0 interactions
(4)-/- interactions
135.Figure 11.4 shows the mutual relationship between fig tree and wasp. Which event links both partners correctly?
(1)Wasp pollinates the fig while using the fruit for oviposition
(2)Fig tree harms the wasp while the wasp is unaffected
(3)Wasp acts as a cactus-feeding predator
(4)Fig uses the wasp only for seed predation without pollination
136.Figure 11.5 shows a bee pollinator on orchid flower. Which chapter idea is most directly connected with this figure?
(1)Orchid floral patterns can attract the right pollinator and ensure pollination
(2)Orchid always acts as an ectoparasite on the bee
(3)Orchid-bumblebee interaction is amensalism
(4)Orchid pollination is impossible without Cuscuta
137.Read the statements and choose the option containing only correct statements.

A. Population density may be measured as numbers, biomass or percent cover.
B. Relative density can never serve ecological investigations.
C. Tiger census may use pug marks and fecal pellets.
D. Fish caught per trap can be a relative density measure.
E. Population density is designated as N.
(1)A, C, D and E only
(2)A, B, C and D only
(3)B, C and E only
(4)A, B and E only
138.Choose the correct combination of statements about population-growth processes.

A. Natality and immigration increase population density.
B. Mortality and emigration decrease population density.
C. Immigration is always more important than birth under normal conditions.
D. A newly colonised habitat may show important contribution of immigration.
E. Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)].
(1)A, B, D and E only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)C, D and E only
(4)A, C and E only
139.Select the correct set for exponential and logistic growth.

A. Exponential growth assumes unlimited resources.
B. Exponential growth gives a J-shaped curve.
C. Logistic growth is described by Verhulst-Pearl equation.
D. Logistic growth has no carrying capacity.
E. Logistic growth is more realistic for most animal populations.
(1)A, B, C and E only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B, D and E only
(4)A, B, D and E only
140.Which combination is correct for life-history variation?

A. Darwinian fitness is associated with high r value.
B. Pacific salmon and bamboo breed only once.
C. Oysters and pelagic fishes produce few large-sized offspring.
D. Birds and mammals may produce few large-sized offspring.
E. Life-history traits evolve with abiotic and biotic constraints.
(1)A, B, D and E only
(2)A, C and E only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B and C only
141.Choose the set containing correct facts about predation and defence.

A. Predation transfers energy fixed by plants to higher trophic levels.
B. Predators always reduce species diversity.
C. Monarch butterfly is distasteful due to a chemical acquired as a caterpillar.
D. Thorns of Acacia and Cactus are morphological defences.
E. Calotropis has poisonous cardiac glycosides.
(1)A, C, D and E only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C, D and E only
(4)A, B, D and E only
142.Choose the correct combination about competition.

A. Competition can involve unrelated species.
B. Resources must always be limiting for competition to occur.
C. Competitive release means expansion after removing a superior competitor.
D. Resource partitioning may involve different feeding times.
E. Balanus excluded Chathamalus in Connell's experiment.
(1)A, C, D and E only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, D and E only
(4)A, B, C and D only
143.Select the correct combination about parasitism and mutualism.

A. Cuscuta has lost chlorophyll and leaves.
B. Endoparasites live inside host body.
C. Female mosquito is considered a parasite in the given NCERT context.
D. Lichens are fungus plus photosynthesising algae/cyanobacteria.
E. Ophrys uses sexual deceit for pollination.
(1)A, B, D and E only
(2)A, C and D only
(3)B, C and E only
(4)A, B, C and D only
144.A researcher estimates density of a fish population by recording catch per trap rather than counting every fish. Which reasoning is correct?
(1)Relative density can serve the purpose in some ecological investigations
(2)Only absolute density is acceptable in all ecological studies
(3)Fish caught per trap measures sex ratio, not density
(4)This method is valid only for plants with large canopy
145.In a new island habitat, a bird population rises mostly because many individuals arrive from a nearby mainland. Which process has become unusually important?
(1)Immigration
(2)Natality only
(3)Mortality
(4)Emigration
146.A population has N = 100, B = 20, I = 5, D = 10 and E = 15 over the period. What is Nt+1?
(1)100
(2)120
(3)80
(4)150
147.A plant species in an abandoned field is avoided by cattle and goats because it produces poisonous cardiac glycosides. Which plant is most likely being described?
(1)Calotropis
(2)Ophrys
(3)Cuscuta
(4)Chlamydomonas
148.An introduced herbivore eliminates a native tortoise within a decade because it browses more efficiently. Which chapter example is closest?
(1)Abingdon tortoise after goats were introduced in Galapagos
(2)Prickly pear cactus controlled by a moth in Australia
(3)Monarch butterfly becoming distasteful
(4)Koel laying eggs in crow nest
149.A parasitic bird's egg resembles the host egg in size and colour. What is the adaptive significance?
(1)It reduces chances of host detecting and ejecting the foreign egg
(2)It increases photosynthesis in host nest
(3)It makes the parasite independent of host incubation
(4)It converts parasitism into amensalism
150.A male bee mistakes a flower petal for a female bee, pseudocopulates, gets dusted with pollen and pollinates the next flower. Which interaction is being tested?
(1)Ophrys sexual deceit and co-evolutionary pollination
(2)Cattle egret commensalism
(3)Cuscuta ectoparasitism
(4)Balanus competitive exclusion

Answer Key

11
22
33
44
51
62
73
84
91
102
113
124
131
142
153
164
171
182
193
204
211
222
233
244
251
262
273
284
291
302
314
321
332
343
354
361
372
383
394
401
412
423
434
441
452
463
474
481
492
503
514
521
532
543
554
561
572
583
594
601
612
623
634
641
652
663
674
681
693
704
711
722
733
744
751
762
773
784
791
802
813
824
831
842
853
864
871
882
893
904
911
921
931
941
951
961
971
981
991
1001
1011
1021
1031
1041
1051
1061
1071
1081
1091
1101
1111
1124
1131
1144
1151
1161
1171
1184
1191
1201
1214
1224
1231
1241
1251
1261
1271
1281
1291
1301
1311
1321
1331
1341
1351
1361
1371
1381
1391
1401
1411
1421
1431
1441
1451
1461
1471
1481
1491
1501