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NEET ]1[ Contd...

NEET Biology Class 12 - Evolution Ultra-Hard Question Bank

Duration: 240 minutesTotal Marks: 960Questions: 240Negative Marking: -1

Instructions:

  1. Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
  2. Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
  3. Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
  4. Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Assertion (A): Life appeared approximately 4 billion years ago, which is about 500 million
years after the formation of Earth.

Reason (R): The universe is very old—almost 20 billion years old, and Earth was formed 4.5
billion years ago.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.Consider the following statements regarding the Big Bang theory of the origin of the
universe:

I. It attempts to explain the origin of the universe through a singular huge explosion physical in
terms.

II. The universe expanded, which caused the temperature of the universe to increase.

III. Hydrogen and Helium gases formed sometime after the expansion of the universe.

IV. The gases condensed under gravity and formed the galaxies of the present day universe.
Which of the combinations represents ONLY INCORRECT statements?
(1)II and III
(2)I and II
(3)I, II, and IV
(4)II only
3.Assertion (A): The early Earth possessed a highly reducing atmosphere composed of
methane, ammonia, water vapour, and carbon dioxide.

Reason (R): There was no atmosphere on the early Earth, and the gases were released from the
molten mass that covered the surface.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
4.Regarding early Earth atmospheric reactions, identify the CORRECT statements:

I. UV rays from the sun broke up water into Hydrogen and Oxygen, and the lighter O_2
escaped.

II. Oxygen combined with ammonia and methane to form water, carbon dioxide, and other
compounds.

III. The ozone layer was formed as a result of oxygen release and reactions.

IV. As the Earth cooled, water vapour fell as rain to fill depressions and form oceans.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II, III, and IV
(2)All of the above
(3)I and IV only
(4)I, II, and III
5.Assertion (A): Louis Pasteur disproved the theory of spontaneous generation once and for
all using pre-sterilized flasks.

Reason (R): Pasteur showed that in flasks closed to air, life did not appear from killed yeast,
whereas in flasks open to air, new living organisms arose from killed yeast.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
6.Identify the CORRECT statement(s) regarding the early theories of the origin of life:

I. Panspermia, a Greek idea, held that units of life called spores were transferred to different
planets including Earth.

II. Spontaneous generation proposed that life arose out of decaying and rotting matter like
straw and mud.

III. Spontaneous generation was supported by Louis Pasteur's experiments.

IV. Louis Pasteur's experiments solved the mystery of how the first life form arose on Earth.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV
(2)I and III
(3)I, II, and III
(4)I and II
7.Assertion (A): Panspermia is still a favorite idea for some astronomers today.

Reason (R): Spores, as units of life, have been recovered from meteors, proving that life was
transferred from other planets to Earth.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
8.Read the statements regarding the Oparin-Haldane theory of chemical evolution:

I. Oparin of England and Haldane of Russia proposed that the first form of life could have come
from pre-existing non-living organic molecules.

II. They proposed that chemical evolution preceded the formation of life.

III. The organic molecules proposed included RNA and proteins.

IV. The inorganic molecules from which life arose included free gaseous oxygen.
Which of the statements is/are CORRECT?
(1)II, III, and IV
(2)II and III
(3)I, II, and III
(4)I and II only
9.Assertion (A): Prebiotic conditions on Earth included high temperature, volcanic storms,
and a reducing atmosphere containing CH_4 and NH_3.

Reason (R): The high temperature and volcanic activity were caused by solar UV radiation
breaking up water molecules.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
10.In S.L. Miller's 1953 experiment, which of the following experimental details is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. He created an electric discharge in a closed flask.

II. The flask contained CH_4, NH_3, H_2, and water vapour.

III. The temperature of the reaction was maintained at 80^\circ C.

IV. He observed the formation of sugars, nitrogen bases, and pigments.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)All of the above
(3)I and II
(4)II and IV
11.Assertion (A): S.L. Miller's experiment provided experimental evidence for Oparin and
Haldane's hypothesis of chemical evolution.

Reason (R): Miller demonstrated that simple organic molecules like amino acids could be
synthesized abiotically under reducing conditions resembling early Earth.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
12.Regarding the origin of non-cellular life forms, identify the CORRECT statements
according to NCERT:

I. The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3 billion years back.

II. They would have been giant molecules like RNA, protein, and polysaccharides.

III. These capsules did not have the capability to reproduce their molecules.

IV. Meteorite analysis shows similar organic compounds, indicating that similar processes are
occurring elsewhere in space.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)All of the above
(3)II and III only
(4)I, II, and IV
13.Assertion (A): The first cellular forms of life possibly did not originate until about 2000
million years ago.

Reason (R): These first cellular life forms were unicellular organisms that arose in a strictly
terrestrial environment.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
14.Consider the following statements regarding the origin of life on Earth. Which of them
is/are CONSISTENT with NCERT?

I. The first cellular forms of life were multicellular eukaryotes.

II. Biogenesis, as accepted today, states that the first form of life arose slowly through
evolutionary forces from non-living molecules.

III. The transition from non-living molecules to the first cellular forms is a fully documented
scientific fact with no gaps in evidence.

IV. The first cellular forms arose in water environment only.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and III
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and IV
(4)II and IV
15.Assertion (A): Louis Pasteur's experiment showed that yeast killed by heat could not yield
new life in a flask open to the air.

Reason (R): In Pasteur's swan-neck flask, the neck trapped dust and microbes, preventing them
from reaching the nutrient broth and demonstrating that life does not arise spontaneously.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
16.Which of the following timelines regarding cosmology and early Earth is/are CORRECT
according to NCERT?

I. The universe is approximately 20 billion years old.

II. The Earth was formed about 4.5 billion years ago.

III. Life appeared 500 million years after the formation of Earth.

IV. First cellular forms of life appeared 3 billion years ago.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)II and IV only
(3)I, II, and III
(4)I and II only
17.Assertion (A): Hydrogen and Helium gases formed sometime after the expansion of the
universe.

Reason (R): The expansion of the universe led to an increase in density and a drop in
temperature, allowing nuclear fusion to occur.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
18.Regarding the origin countries of Oparin and Haldane, which of the following statements
are CORRECT?

I. Oparin belonged to Russia.

II. Haldane belonged to England.

III. Oparin belonged to England and Haldane to Russia.

IV. Both Oparin and Haldane belonged to Russia.
Choose the correct option:
(1)IV only
(2)I and II
(3)I and IV
(4)III only
19.Assertion (A): When we look at stars on a clear night sky, we are in a way looking back in
time.

Reason (R): Stellar distances are measured in light years, and the light we see today from stars
started its journey millions of years ago.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
20.Read the following comparisons between viewing surrounding objects and viewing stars.
Which of the statements is/are CORRECT?

I. Surrounding objects are seen instantly because they are in our immediate vicinity.

II. When we see surrounding objects, we see them in the present time.

III. When we see stars, we see them instantly in the present time.

IV. Stellar objects are seen as they existed in the past due to light travel time delays.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and IV
(2)I and II only
(3)II and III only
(4)All of the above
21.Assertion (A): The universe is roughly four times older than the Earth.

Reason (R): The universe is almost 20 billion years old, and the Earth was formed 4.5 billion
years ago.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
22.Which of the following compounds were released from the molten mass of the early Earth
to cover its surface?

I. Water vapour

II. Methane

III. Carbon dioxide

IV. Free Oxygen gas

V. Ammonia
Choose the correct combination:
(1)II, III, and IV
(2)I, II, and III only
(3)I, II, III, and V
(4)All of the above
23.Assertion (A): The splitting of water by UV rays resulted in the accumulation of Hydrogen
gas in the early atmosphere.

Reason (R): Hydrogen is a lighter gas and therefore remained in the atmosphere, while the
heavier Oxygen gas escaped into outer space.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
24.Regarding the sequence of atmospheric events on early Earth, which of the following
represents the CORRECT chronological order?

I. Formation of water vapour and reducing gases from molten mass.

II. Splitting of water by solar UV rays and escape of Hydrogen.

III. Reaction of Oxygen with ammonia and methane to form water and CO_2.

IV. Formation of the ozone layer.

V. Cooling of the Earth and condensation of water vapour to form oceans.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II →\rightarrow I →\rightarrow III →\rightarrow V →\rightarrow IV
(2)I →\rightarrow II →\rightarrow III →\rightarrow IV →\rightarrow V
(3)I →\rightarrow II →\rightarrow IV →\rightarrow III →\rightarrow V
(4)I →\rightarrow III →\rightarrow II →\rightarrow IV →\rightarrow V
25.Assertion (A): Life on Earth appeared approximately 4.0 billion years ago.

Reason (R): Life appeared 50 million years after the formation of Earth, which is estimated to
have occurred 4.5 billion years ago.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
26.Regarding the historical idea of Panspermia, which of the following is/are CORRECT
according to NCERT?

I. It was first proposed by early Greek thinkers.

II. It states that units of life called spores were transferred to different planets, including Earth.

III. It is no longer considered a valid idea by any modern astronomers.

IV. It assumes life originated on Earth and then spread to other planets.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV
(2)I, II, and III
(3)I and II
(4)I and IV
27.Assertion (A): For a long time, it was believed that life arose from non-living, decaying,
and rotting matter like straw and mud.

Reason (R): This belief was referred to as the theory of biogenesis.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
28.Oparin and Haldane proposed that chemical evolution preceded the origin of life.
According to them, what was the nature of this chemical evolution?

I. Formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents.

II. Synthesis of inorganic salts from organic monomers in the primitive ocean.

III. The organic molecules formed included proteins and RNA.

IV. The energy for chemical evolution was provided by lightning and high temperatures.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, III, and IV
(2)All of the above
(3)I and III only
(4)II and IV only
29.Assertion (A): S.L. Miller did not include free Oxygen gas (O_2) in his experimental spark-
discharge flask.

Reason (R): The primitive Earth lacked free Oxygen and possessed a reducing atmosphere
containing CH_4, NH_3, H_2, and water vapour.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
30.Regarding the capsules of the first non-cellular life forms, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. They could have originated 3 billion years ago.

II. They were composed of giant molecules like RNA, protein, and polysaccharides.

III. They reproduced their molecules, acting as self-replicating chemical capsules.

IV. They were fully defined cells with lipid membrane envelopes.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and II only
(3)I, II, and III
(4)II and IV only
31.Assertion (A): Charles Darwin concluded that existing life forms share similarities to
varying degrees not only among themselves but also with life forms that existed millions of years
ago.

Reason (R): Darwin made a round-the-world sea voyage in a sail ship named HMS Beagle and
observed diverse flora and fauna across different continents.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
32.Regarding Alfred Wallace, a naturalist whose work influenced evolutionary theory, which
of the following statements is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. He worked in the Malay Archipelago.

II. He came to similar conclusions regarding natural selection around the same time as Darwin.

III. He proposed that all existing life forms share common ancestors that existed at different
periods of Earth's history.

IV. He concluded that geological history of Earth does not correlate with biological history of
Earth.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
33.Assertion (A): According to Darwin, fitness of an individual refers ultimately and only to
reproductive fitness.

Reason (R): Those who are better fit in an environment leave more progeny than others and
survive more, hence being selected by nature.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
34.Which of the following statements regarding Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's theory of evolution
is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. He was a French naturalist who proposed that evolution of life forms occurred by use and
disuse of organs.

II. He gave the example of giraffes, which elongated their necks to forage leaves on tall trees.

III. He argued that the acquired character of a long neck was passed on to succeeding
generations.

IV. His theory is currently the most widely accepted mechanism of evolution in modern biology.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)I and II only
(3)All of the above
(4)II and IV only
35.Assertion (A): The geological history of Earth closely correlates with the biological history
of Earth.

Reason (R): New life forms have arisen at different periods in the history of Earth, and many
life forms became extinct over geological epochs.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
36.Regarding the concept of common ancestry as stated in NCERT, which of the following
is/are CORRECT?

I. All existing life forms share common ancestors.

II. These common ancestors existed at the same period of Earth's history.

III. The ancestors of existing organisms existed at different periods of Earth's history (epochs,
eras).

IV. Common ancestry implies that all life forms originated from a single species simultaneously.
Choose the correct option:
(1)III and IV only
(2)I, II, and III
(3)I and IV only
(4)I and III
37.Assertion (A): Fossils are the remains of hard parts of life-forms found in rocks.

Reason (R): Rocks are formed by the sedimentation process, and a cross-section of Earth's crust
indicates the chronological arrangement of sediment layers over time.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
38.Which of the following statements regarding paleontological evidence is/are CORRECT
according to NCERT?

I. Different aged rock sediments contain fossils of different life-forms.

II. Fossil organisms in older sediments are generally more complex than those in younger
sediments.

III. Certain fossils are restricted to specific geological time spans.

IV. Fossil study, known as paleontology, shows that life-forms have changed over time and new
forms have arisen.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, III, and IV
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
39.Assertion (A): A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological
period in which they existed.

Reason (R): The depth of the sedimentary layer is directly proportional to the size and weight of
the fossilized organism.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
40.Regarding comparative anatomy and morphology, which of the following statements is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. It shows similarities and differences among organisms of today and those that existed years
ago.

II. Similarities can be interpreted to understand if common ancestors were shared.

III. Homology is based on shared ancestry, representing structural similarities with different
functions.

IV. Analogy represents structural differences that perform identical functions due to convergent
evolution.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I, II, and III only
(3)I and III only
(4)II and IV only
41.Assertion (A): The forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetahs, and humans share a similar
anatomical structure of bones, including humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, and
phalanges.

Reason (R): These organisms perform similar functions with their forelimbs, adapting to a
common aquatic habitat.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
42.Which of the following statements correctly describe divergent evolution?

I. The same structure developed along different directions due to adaptations to different needs.

II. It is the biological mechanism that explains homologous organs.

III. It indicates common ancestry among the diverging species.

IV. It involves organisms with different structures evolving towards a common function in
response to similar environments.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)II and IV only
(3)I and II only
(4)I, II, and III
43.Assertion (A): The thorn of Bougainvillea and the tendril of Cucurbita represent
homologous organs.

Reason (R): Both thorns and tendrils arise from the axillary position and share a common
structural origin, despite performing different functions.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
44.Which of the following combinations contains ONLY homologous structures according to
NCERT?

I. Forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetahs, and humans.

II. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita.

III. Vertebrate hearts and brains.

IV. Wings of butterflies and wings of birds.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II, III, and IV
(2)I and II only
(3)All of the above
(4)I, II, and III
45.Assertion (A): Vertebrate hearts and brains are homologous structures.

Reason (R): They are structurally identical across all vertebrates and perform the exact same
physiological functions.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
46.Regarding the wings of butterflies and birds, which of the following statements is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. They are anatomically similar and possess similar bone patterns.

II. They perform the same function of flying.

III. They are analogous structures, representing convergent evolution.

IV. They share a common evolutionary origin.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)II and III
(3)III and IV
(4)II and IV
47.Assertion (A): Sweet potato and potato represent analogous organs in plants.

Reason (R): Sweet potato is a modified root and potato is a modified stem, both serving the
common function of food storage.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
48.Which of the following represent analogous structures according to NCERT?

I. The eye of the octopus and the eye of mammals.

II. The flippers of penguins and dolphins.

III. Sweet potato and potato.

IV. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita.
Choose the correct combination:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)I and II only
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
49.Assertion (A): Flippers of penguins and dolphins represent analogous structures.

Reason (R): Both penguins and dolphins live in aquatic environments and developed flippers for
swimming through convergent evolution.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
50.Identify the CORRECT statement(s) regarding convergent evolution according to
NCERT:

I. It is the selection of similar adaptive features in different groups of organisms.

II. It occurs when different groups of organisms share a similar habitat.

III. It leads to the formation of analogous structures.

IV. It involves structures that share a common ancestral origin but have diverged over time.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and II only
(3)II and IV only
(4)I, II, and III
51.Assertion (A): Lamarck argued that giraffes acquired long necks because they continually
stretched them to reach leaves on tall trees.

Reason (R): According to Lamarck, organs that are used frequently will increase in size,
whereas disused organs will degenerate.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
52.Regarding the chronological arrangement of sediments and fossils, which of the following
is/are CORRECT?

I. The cross-section of Earth's crust shows layers of sediments deposited one over another.

II. The deeper sediment layers are older than the upper layers.

III. Fossils found in deeper layers represent organisms that died earlier in geological history.

IV. The relative position of a fossil in the strata has no bearing on its geological age.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and IV only
(4)I and II only
53.Assertion (A): Paleontology provides direct proof that life forms have changed over time
on Earth.

Reason (R): Fossil records document the appearance of new life forms and the extinction of
others across different geological epochs.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
54.Which of the following concepts are integral parts of Charles Darwin's evolutionary theory
as summarized in NCERT?

I. Existing life forms share similarities and common ancestors.

II. Natural selection acts on variations that are inheritable.

III. The characteristics that enable survival will be selected by nature.

IV. Acquired physiological changes are passed on directly to offspring to drive speciation.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I, II, and III
(3)All of the above
(4)I and II only
55.Assertion (A): Alfred Wallace and Charles Darwin jointly conducted the HMS Beagle
voyage and co-authored 'The Origin of Species' in 1859.

Reason (R): Both naturalists reached similar conclusions about natural selection independently
at approximately the same time.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
56.What are the major conclusions regarding the history of Earth and life forms as
summarized at the end of NCERT Section 6.2?

I. The Earth is not hundreds of years old but billions of years old.

II. All existing life forms share common ancestors.

III. Geological history of Earth does not correlate with biological history.

IV. Life forms varied over time and arose at different periods.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and II only
(3)I, II, and IV
(4)II and III only
57.Assertion (A): Only the soft tissues of ancient organisms are preserved as fossils in
sedimentary rocks.

Reason (R): Hard parts like bones and teeth decompose quickly and cannot withstand the high
pressures of the sedimentation process.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are false.
58.Regarding the analysis of sedimentary layers, which of the following is/are CORRECT?

I. A cross-section of the Earth's crust indicates the arrangement of sediments one over the other.

II. Sediments are deposited over the long history of Earth.

III. The fossils found in a layer represent organisms that died during the formation of that
particular sediment.

IV. All sedimentary layers across the Earth contain the exact same types of fossils.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)All of the above
(3)II and IV only
(4)I and II only
59.Assertion (A): Homologous structures are those that share a common anatomical layout
but have evolved to perform different functions.

Reason (R): Homology is the result of convergent evolution where different structures adapt to
the same needs.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
60.Which of the following statements matches Charles Darwin's view on fitness and selection?

I. Fitness is based on characteristics that are inherited.

II. Fitness is primarily measured by physical strength and longevity.

III. Reproductive fitness is the ultimate measure of fitness.

IV. Those who survive better are selected by nature to leave more progeny.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and III only
(2)I, III, and IV
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
61.Assertion (A): Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita represent homology,
whereas sweet potato and potato represent analogy.

Reason (R): Thorns and tendrils share a common structural origin but have diverged for
different functions, while sweet potato and potato have different structural origins but have
converged for food storage.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
62.Regarding the industrial melanism observations in England, which of the following
collections is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. In a collection made in the 1850s (before industrialisation), more white-winged moths were
observed on trees than dark-winged/melanic moths.

II. In a collection made in the 1920s (after industrialisation), more dark-winged moths were
observed than white-winged moths.

III. The change in proportions was due to the selective predation by birds, which spotted moths
against tree trunks.

IV. White-winged moths disappeared completely from England after the 1920s post-
industrialization phase.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I and II only
(3)I, II, and III
(4)All of the above
63.Assertion (A): Before industrialisation, white-winged moths survived better because tree
trunks were dark due to soot and smoke.

Reason (R): Post-industrialisation, tree trunks became covered with thick growths of white
lichens, which camouflaged the dark-winged moths.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
64.Regarding lichens as biological indicators of pollution, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. Lichens grow thickly on tree trunks in unpolluted rural areas, giving trunks a white
appearance.

II. Lichens do not grow in areas that are polluted by industrial smoke and soot.

III. Lichens are symbiotic associations that are highly resistant to sulfur dioxide pollution.

IV. The absence of lichens post-industrialisation contributed to the darkening of tree trunks.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)II, III, and IV
(3)I, II, and IV
(4)All of the above
65.Assertion (A): Before industrialisation, the dark-winged melanic moths were easily preyed
upon by predatory birds.

Reason (R): The dark-winged moths stood out conspicuously against the background of light-
coloured, lichen-covered tree trunks.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
66.What major conclusions can be drawn from the industrial melanism observations in
England?

I. In a mixed population, those that can better-adapt, survive and increase in population size.

II. No variant is completely wiped out.

III. Natural selection can shift the dominant phenotype back and forth depending on
environmental conditions.

IV. The white-winged moths survived in rural areas because industrial pollution was low there.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III only
(2)II and IV only
(3)I and III only
(4)All of the above
67.Assertion (A): In rural areas of England where industrialisation did not occur, the count of
dark-coloured/melanic moths remained low.

Reason (R): Tree trunks in rural areas remained covered with light-coloured lichens, allowing
white-winged moths to camouflage and escape predation.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
68.Which of the following are examples of evolution by anthropogenic (human) action
according to NCERT?

I. Selection of resistant varieties of pests due to excess use of herbicides and pesticides.

II. Appearance of drug-resistant microbes due to antibiotic use.

III. Development of melanic moths in response to industrial smoke and soot.

IV. Evolvability of Darwin's finches on the Galapagos Islands in response to drought.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and III
(4)II and IV only
69.Assertion (A): Resistant varieties of bacteria arise within days or weeks rather than
centuries when exposed to antibiotics.

Reason (R): Antibiotics act as powerful mutagens, creating new resistant mutations in bacteria
upon exposure.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
70.According to the final paragraph of NCERT Section 6.3, evolution is described as:

I. A directed process with a pre-determined destination.

II. A stochastic process based on chance events in nature.

III. A stochastic process based on chance mutations in the organisms.

IV. A deterministic process governed by chemical equilibrium.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and III
(4)II and IV
71.Assertion (A): Excess use of herbicides and pesticides has resulted in the selection of
resistant pest varieties in a very short time scale.

Reason (R): The selection pressure of herbicides kills sensitive variants, allowing only pre-
existing resistant variants to survive and propagate.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
72.Identify the CORRECT dates and details regarding the industrial melanism studies in
England:

I. Pre-industrialisation collection: 1850s.

II. Post-industrialisation collection: 1920s.

III. The moth studied belongs to the species Biston betularia.

IV. The dark-winged moths were called melanic moths.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and IV
(4)II, III, and IV
73.Assertion (A): Industrialisation in England caused the tree trunks in industrial areas to
turn dark.

Reason (R): The deposition of industrial smoke and soot killed the light-coloured lichens and
covered the bark underneath.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
74.Regarding the thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita, which of the following
is/are CORRECT?

I. They are homologous structures.

II. They perform different functions (defense vs climbing).

III. They represent divergent evolution.

IV. They perform the same function of climbing but have different anatomical structures.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)I and III only
(3)All of the above
(4)II and IV only
75.Assertion (A): The brains of fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals are
homologous organs.

Reason (R): They perform different functional tasks of integration and behavior, but are
constructed with the same basic regions representing a common ancestry.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
76.Regarding the eyes of octopuses and mammals, which of the following statements is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. They are homologous structures representing divergent evolution.

II. They are analogous structures representing convergent evolution.

III. They perform the same function of vision.

IV. They differ in retinal structure and embryonic origin but look functionally similar.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and III only
(2)II, III, and IV
(3)II and III only
(4)All of the above
77.Assertion (A): Sweet potato is a stem modification, whereas potato is a root modification.

Reason (R): Both sweet potato and potato store food, representing a homologous relationship
due to shared metabolic functions.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are false.
78.Read the following statements and identify the CORRECT combinations:

I. Divergent evolution is based on homology, representing shared ancestry.

II. Convergent evolution is based on analogy, representing adaptation to similar habitats.

III. Divergent evolution leads to functional differences in structurally related organs.

IV. Convergent evolution leads to structural similarities in functionally unrelated organs.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I and II only
(3)I, II, and III
(4)All of the above
79.Assertion (A): Lichens are excellent bioindicators of industrial pollution.

Reason (R): Lichens are highly sensitive organisms that fail to grow in areas polluted with
industrial smoke and soot.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
80.Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding the phenotypes of peppered moths in
industrial England?

I. White-winged moths were also known as melanic forms.

II. Dark-winged moths arose due to the deposition of soot directly on their wings during their
lifetime.

III. The dark-winged moths had a genetic basis that became selected post-industrialisation.

IV. White-winged moths survived because they were genetically immune to coal smoke toxicity.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and III
(2)I and II
(3)III and IV
(4)III only
81.Assertion (A): Evolution by anthropogenic action occurs in a much shorter time scale
compared to natural geological evolution.

Reason (R): Humans create intense, uniform selection pressures (like pesticides and antibiotics)
that rapidly eliminate sensitive genotypes and select for rare resistant variants.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
82.Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding the stochastic nature of evolution?

I. It is based on chance events in nature.

II. It is based on chance mutations in the organisms.

III. It represents a directed, deterministic trajectory toward complexity.

IV. It implies that evolution is a completely predictable mathematical equation.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and IV only
(4)I and II
83.Assertion (A): Pests develop pesticide resistance only after they are exposed to the pesticide
for several generations.

Reason (R): Exposure to sublethal doses of pesticides causes mutations that gradually build
resistance in individual organisms.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
84.Why are vertebrate hearts considered homologous structures?

I. They show a common structural plan (chambers) across all vertebrate classes.

II. They all arise from the embryonic mesoderm during development.

III. They perform the same function of pumping blood, though adapted to different respiratory
systems.

IV. They show divergent modifications (2, 3, or 4 chambers) to meet different physiological
demands.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and IV only
(2)All of the above
(3)I and IV only
(4)II and III only
85.Assertion (A): In post-industrial England, dark-winged moths had a survival advantage
over white-winged moths.

Reason (R): Predatory birds were unable to see the dark-winged moths against the dark, soot-
covered tree trunks, while they easily spotted the white-winged moths.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
86.Regarding the structural origin of Bougainvillea thorns and Cucurbita tendrils, which of
the following is/are CORRECT?

I. Both thorns and tendrils develop from axillary buds.

II. Thorns are modified leaves and tendrils are modified stems.

III. Their developmental location (axillary position) is the key proof of their homologous nature.

IV. They represent divergent evolution adapting to different environmental needs.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and III only
(2)II and IV only
(3)All of the above
(4)I, III, and IV
87.Assertion (A): Sweet potato and potato perform the identical function of food storage.

Reason (R): Sweet potato is a root modification and potato is a stem modification, proving that
they are homologous structures.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
88.Regarding the flippers of penguins and dolphins, which of the following statements are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. They are structurally different organs.

II. Penguins are birds and dolphins are mammals, representing different ancestral lineages.

III. They perform the same function of swimming.

IV. They represent convergent evolution in response to a shared aquatic environment.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and III only
(2)I, II, and III only
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
89.Assertion (A): Evolution cannot be considered a fully directed or deterministic process in
biology.

Reason (R): Evolutionary changes depend on random chance events in nature and chance
mutations within organisms, which are not pre-planned.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
90.In rural areas of England during the industrialisation period, which of the following
occurred?

I. The tree trunks remained light-coloured because industrial soot did not reach rural areas.

II. White-winged moths remained dominant in rural areas.

III. Melanic moths were easily spotted and preyed upon in rural areas, keeping their numbers
low.

IV. Lichens were killed in rural areas by sulfur dioxide carried by wind from urban centers.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)II and IV only
(3)All of the above
(4)I, II, and III
91.Assertion (A): Darwin's finches of the Galapagos Islands represent one of the best
examples of adaptive radiation.

Reason (R): From the original seed-eating features, many other forms with altered beaks arose,
enabling them to become insectivorous and vegetarian finches.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
92.Regarding the beak modifications of Darwin's finches, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. The original finches on the Galapagos Islands were insectivorous.

II. Beaks were modified to allow some finches to become vegetarian.

III. Beak alterations enabled other forms to become insectivorous.

IV. All Galapagos finch species maintained seed-eating habits despite beak changes.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and III
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and IV only
(4)I and IV only
93.Assertion (A): A number of marsupials, each different from the other, evolved from an
ancestral stock in Australia.

Reason (R): They all evolved within the isolated Australian continent, starting from a point and
radiating to different habitats.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
94.Which of the following organisms are classified as Australian marsupials in NCERT Figure
6.6?

I. Sugar glider and Tasmanian wolf

II. Bobcat and Spotted cuscus

III. Banded anteater and Koala

IV. Marsupial mole and Wombat
Choose the correct option:
(1)II, III, and IV
(2)I and II only
(3)I, III, and IV
(4)All of the above
95.Assertion (A): Marsupials in Australia survived and diversified because there was little
competition from placental mammals.

Reason (R): Continental drift separated the Australian landmass from other continents before
placental mammals could override them.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
96.Regarding the convergent evolution between placental mammals and Australian
marsupials, which of the following statements is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated
geographical area, it represents convergent evolution.

II. Placental mammals in Australia show adaptive radiation in evolving into varieties of
mammals.

III. Each placental variety appears similar to a corresponding marsupial.

IV. The similarities are due to shared ancestral genes reactivated by similar habitats.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I and II only
(3)I, II, and III
(4)All of the above
97.Assertion (A): The placental mole and the Australian marsupial mole represent analogous
structures.

Reason (R): They are structurally and anatomically identical because they share a recent
common ancestor that was specialized for digging.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
98.According to NCERT Table 6.1, which of the following convergent pairs is/are
CORRECTLY matched?

I. Anteater - Banded anteater

II. Lemur - Spotted cuscus

III. Flying squirrel - Flying phalanger

IV. Bobcat - Tasmanian tiger cat
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)II and IV only
(3)I, II, and III only
(4)I and III only
99.Assertion (A): The Lemur (placental) and the Spotted cuscus (marsupial) exhibit
convergent evolution.

Reason (R): They occupy similar ecological niches in their respective regions, leading to the
selection of similar adaptive features.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
100.Regarding the gliders of Australia and other continents, which of the following statements
is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. The Flying squirrel is a placental mammal.

II. The Flying phalanger is an Australian marsupial.

III. They both developed skin folds (patagia) that allow them to glide, representing convergent
evolution.

IV. They represent divergent evolution from a recent common flying ancestor.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and III
(4)II and IV only
101.Assertion (A): Adaptive radiation is restricted to the evolution of aquatic species moving
to terrestrial environments.

Reason (R): Adaptive radiation occurs only when organisms migrate across different continents
over millions of years.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
102.Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding the Mouse and Marsupial mouse
convergent pair?

I. The Mouse is a placental mammal.

II. The Marsupial mouse is an Australian marsupial.

III. They exhibit similar rodent-like body structures and feeding behaviors due to convergent
evolution.

IV. They represent homologous structures arising from a recent common ancestor.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and II only
(3)II and IV only
(4)I, II, and III
103.Assertion (A): The ancestral species of Darwin's finches migrated to the Galapagos
Islands from the African mainland.

Reason (R): The Galapagos Islands are geographically close to the coast of West Africa, allowing
birds to fly across the Atlantic Ocean.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
104.Regarding the effects of continental drift on mammalian distribution, which of the
following statements is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. When South America joined North America, South American marsupials were overridden by
North American placental fauna.

II. Australian marsupials survived because Australia was isolated from other landmasses.

III. Continental drift prevented placental mammals from outcompeting Australian marsupials.

IV. Placental mammals and marsupials co-existed in equal proportions on all continents after
drift.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I, II, and III
(3)I and II only
(4)All of the above
105.Assertion (A): When more than one adaptive radiation occurs in an isolated geographical
area representing different habitats, it results in convergent evolution.

Reason (R): Different groups of organisms adapt to similar ecological niches in separate
habitats, selecting for similar functional features.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
106.According to NCERT Figure 6.6, which of the following marsupials share a common
ancestor?

I. Koala and Wombat

II. Kangaroo and Bandicoot

III. Sugar glider and Marsupial mole

IV. Tasmanian wolf and Tiger cat
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and IV only
(2)I, II, and III only
(3)All of the above
(4)II and IV only
107.Assertion (A): The Tasmanian wolf is a placental mammal that outcompeted marsupials
in Australia.

Reason (R): The Tasmanian wolf shares a close homologous bone pattern with the common
placental wolf, showing divergent evolution.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
108.Which of the following diet types evolved among Darwin's finches as a result of adaptive
radiation?

I. Seed-eating (ancestral habit)

II. Insectivorous (insect-eating)

III. Vegetarian (plant/fruit-eating)

IV. Carnivorous (preying on other birds)
Choose the correct combination:
(1)All of the above
(2)I, II, and III
(3)I and II only
(4)II and IV only
109.Assertion (A): The Anteater and the Banded anteater represent a convergent pair of
mammals.

Reason (R): The Banded anteater is a placental mammal, whereas the common Anteater is an
Australian marsupial.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
110.Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding the Spotted cuscus according to
NCERT?

I. It is an Australian marsupial.

II. Its placental convergent counterpart is the Lemur.

III. It evolved from the same ancestral marsupial stock as the kangaroo.

IV. It is an aquatic mammal convergent with the dolphin.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and II only
(3)II and IV only
(4)I, II, and III
111.Assertion (A): The mouse and the marsupial mouse arose in different continents but look
very similar.

Reason (R): They evolved in similar ecological niches and were selected for similar rodent-like
habits through convergent evolution.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
112.Which of the following groups represent examples of adaptive radiation according to
NCERT?

I. Darwin's finches of the Galapagos Islands.

II. Australian marsupials.

III. Placental mammals in Australia.

IV. Industrial melanic moths in England.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)II and IV only
(3)I and II only
(4)All of the above
113.Assertion (A): Darwin's finches represent divergent evolution from a common ancestral
species.

Reason (R): They all originated from a single seed-eating founder species and diversified into
different feeding habits on the same island group.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
114.According to NCERT Figure 6.6, which of the following marsupials is/are correctly
identified with their common names?

I. Numbat - Banded anteater

II. Tasmanian tiger cat - Tiger cat

III. Flying phalanger - Sugar glider

IV. Tasmanian wolf - Thylacine
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)II and IV only
(3)I and II only
(4)I, II, and III
115.Assertion (A): South American marsupials were overridden by North American placental
mammals during geological history.

Reason (R): The joining of North America and South America due to continental drift allowed
placental mammals to migrate south and outcompete the native marsupials.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
116.Regarding the placental mammals in Australia, which of the following is/are CORRECT
according to NCERT?

I. They exhibit adaptive radiation, evolving into diverse varieties.

II. They evolved within Australia after migrating there as primitive placentals.

III. Each placental variety looks similar to a corresponding Australian marsupial.

IV. They completely replaced all Australian marsupials, leading to their extinction.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and III only
(3)II and IV only
(4)I, II, and III
117.Assertion (A): The flying phalanger is also known as the sugar glider in Australia.

Reason (R): It has a skin membrane that stretches between its limbs, allowing it to glide from
tree to tree like a flying squirrel.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
118.Regarding Charles Darwin's study of finches on the Galapagos Islands, which of the
following is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. He observed an amazing diversity of creatures, of which finches were particularly striking.

II. He realized there were many varieties of finches in the same island group.

III. All the finch varieties he observed had evolved on the islands themselves.

IV. He concluded that they migrated to the islands as separate insectivorous species from the
mainland.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and III
(4)I and II only
119.Assertion (A): Adaptive radiation represents a divergent branching pattern of evolution
starting from a common ancestor.

Reason (R): Natural selection acts on a single ancestral population, driving different sub-
populations to adapt to separate ecological niches.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
120.Which of the following placental-marsupial pairs from Table 6.1 is/are INCORRECTLY
matched?

I. Lemur - spotted cuscus

II. Flying squirrel - sugar glider

III. Bobcat - Tasmanian wolf

IV. Mouse - marsupial mouse
Choose the incorrect pair(s):
(1)II only
(2)II and III
(3)III only
(4)I and IV
121.Assertion (A): Natural selection is a process in which heritable variations that enable
better survival are selected by nature.

Reason (R): The individuals with these heritable characteristics leave more progeny and survive
better, increasing their frequency over generations.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
122.Thomas Malthus's work on populations significantly influenced Charles Darwin. Which
of the following Malthusian principles are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. Natural resources are limiting for any population.

II. Population sizes grow exponentially if unchecked, but remain stable in size under natural
conditions.

III. The stability in population size is due to intense competition for resources among
individuals.

IV. Individual populations show seasonal fluctuations but grow infinitely over geological time.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and IV only
(4)I and II only
123.Assertion (A): Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of the
Darwinian theory of evolution.

Reason (R): Branching descent explains common ancestry and divergence of species, while
natural selection acts as the mechanism for adaptation to environments.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
124.Regarding Hugo de Vries and his mutation theory, which of the following statements
is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. He worked on evening primrose (*Oenothera lamarckiana*).

II. He proposed that mutations are the source of evolution.

III. He believed that mutations are random and directional.

IV. He suggested that mutations are large and cause sudden changes in populations.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and II only
(3)I, II, and IV
(4)II, III, and IV
125.Assertion (A): According to Hugo de Vries, mutations lead to speciation through gradual
accumulation over many generations.

Reason (R): De Vries proposed that mutations are random and directionless, whereas Darwin
believed in small, directional variations.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
126.Which of the following describes the concept of 'saltation' as proposed by Hugo de Vries?

I. It refers to a single-step, large mutation.

II. It is the primary mechanism of speciation in de Vries' theory.

III. It represents a slow, continuous change in gene frequencies over centuries.

IV. It involves minor, directional variations accumulating in a population.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II
(2)II and IV only
(3)I, II, and III
(4)I and IV only
127.Assertion (A): Adaptive ability is inherited and has a genetic basis.

Reason (R): Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
128.Darwin's natural selection theory was built on several key observations. Which of the
following are CORRECT observations from nature as stated in NCERT?

I. Natural resources are limiting.

II. Populations are stable in size except for seasonal fluctuations.

III. Members of a population show variations in characteristics.

IV. No two individuals in a population are identical, even if they look similar.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and III only
(2)I, II, and III only
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
129.Assertion (A): Lamarck's use-disuse conjecture is no longer accepted as a valid
mechanism of evolution by modern biologists.

Reason (R): Acquired physical modifications in somatic tissues during an organism's lifetime
cannot alter the genetic sequence of germ cells to be inherited.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
130.Regarding the scientific ideas of Hugo de Vries, which of the following is/are CORRECT
according to NCERT?

I. He based his mutation theory on his work with evening primrose.

II. He believed that it is mutations, and not the minor variations of Darwin, that drive evolution.

III. He proposed that mutations appear suddenly in a population.

IV. He argued that mutations are small, directional changes in phenotype.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)II and IV only
(3)I and II only
(4)I, II, and III
131.Assertion (A): The pattern of evolution is represented by a branching tree rather than a
single linear ladder.

Reason (R): Branching descent shows that multiple species diverge from common ancestors at
different points in geological time.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
132.Which of the following comparisons between Hugo de Vries' mutations and Charles
Darwin's variations is/are CORRECT?

I. Mutations are random; Darwinian variations are small.

II. Mutations are directionless; Darwinian variations are directional.

III. Mutations cause gradual evolution; Darwinian variations cause sudden speciation.

IV. Mutations can cause saltation; Darwinian variations act step-by-step.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and III only
(2)All of the above
(3)I and II only
(4)I, II, and IV
133.Assertion (A): Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.

Reason (R): Individuals with high physical strength are always selected by nature, regardless of
their reproductive output.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
134.Regarding Lamarck's giraffe theory, which of the following is/are CORRECT according
to NCERT?

I. Giraffes elongated their necks to forage leaves on tall trees.

II. They passed on the acquired character of elongated necks to succeeding generations.

III. They acquired long necks gradually over several generations by stretching.

IV. Modern genetic research has fully validated this explanation of giraffe evolution.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I and II only
(3)I, II, and III
(4)All of the above
135.Assertion (A): Hugo de Vries proposed that evolution is a sudden, jumpy process rather
than a gradual one.

Reason (R): De Vries believed that speciation is caused by saltation, which is a single-step large
mutation.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
136.Which of the following characteristics describe Darwinian variations?

I. Small in size.

II. Directional in nature.

III. Random and directionless.

IV. Lead to gradual evolution over generations.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and II only
(3)I, II, and IV
(4)II and III only
137.Assertion (A): In nature, populations of organisms rarely show explosive, unchecked
growth for long periods.

Reason (R): Natural resources like food and space are limiting, creating a competitive struggle
for survival among individuals.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
138.Regarding the characteristics that enable survival in an environment, which of the
following is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. They must be inherited (have a genetic basis).

II. They enable some individuals to survive better than others.

III. They are acquired during the organism's lifetime through physical activity.

IV. They result in higher reproductive output (leaving more progeny).
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and IV
(2)I and II only
(3)All of the above
(4)II and IV only
139.Assertion (A): Mutations are described as random and directionless events in
populations.

Reason (R): A mutation can occur in any gene at any time, and it does not necessarily occur in
response to environmental demands.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
140.According to the logic of biological evolution presented in NCERT Section 6.5, which of
the following represents the CORRECT chain of events?

I. Presence of heritable variation →\rightarrow II. Differential adaptation to environment →\rightarrow III.
Differential reproductive success (fitness) →\rightarrow IV. Selection by nature.
Choose the correct option:
(1)IV →\rightarrow III →\rightarrow II →\rightarrow I
(2)I →\rightarrow II →\rightarrow III →\rightarrow IV
(3)I →\rightarrow III →\rightarrow II →\rightarrow IV
(4)II →\rightarrow I →\rightarrow III →\rightarrow IV
141.Assertion (A): Lamarck, an English naturalist, proposed that evolution was driven by use
and disuse of organs.

Reason (R): Lamarck used the example of giraffes to illustrate how elongation of the neck was
passed to offspring.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
142.Regarding the term 'saltation' in evolutionary biology, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. It was coined by Hugo de Vries.

II. It stands for a single-step large mutation.

III. It represents a process of gradual phenotypic change.

IV. It is the mechanism by which mutations cause speciation according to de Vries.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and III only
(2)I and II only
(3)All of the above
(4)I, II, and IV
143.Assertion (A): Populations in nature show intense, continuous growth without any
seasonal fluctuation.

Reason (R): Natural resources are unlimited, preventing any competition among members of a
population.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
144.According to the Darwinian theory, natural selection operates on which of the following
assumptions?

I. Resources are limiting, leading to competition.

II. Variations within a population are heritable.

III. The environment selects for traits that enhance reproductive success.

IV. Only the physically dominant individuals survive and reproduce.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
145.Assertion (A): Adaptive ability is inherited and has a genetic basis.

Reason (R): The characteristics that allow better adaptation are encoded in the genetic material
and passed on to progeny.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
146.Identify the CORRECT statement(s) regarding the differences between Darwinian
evolution and Hugo de Vries' mutation theory:

I. Darwin believed in gradual change; de Vries believed in sudden change.

II. Darwin's variations are small; de Vries' mutations are large.

III. Darwin's variations are directional; de Vries' mutations are directionless.

IV. Darwin's evolution is continuous; de Vries' evolution is discontinuous (saltational).
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I, II, and III only
(3)All of the above
(4)I and III only
147.Assertion (A): Hugo de Vries based his mutation theory on his experiments with the
evening primrose.

Reason (R): Evening primrose is botanically known as *Oenothera lamarckiana*.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
148.According to Malthus's theory, if resources were unlimited, what pattern of population
growth would be observed?

I. Exponential growth (geometric progression).

II. Logistic growth (S-shaped curve).

III. Linear growth (arithmetic progression).

IV. Infinite accumulation of individuals without any plateau.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and IV
(2)II and III
(3)I and II
(4)I, II, and IV
149.Assertion (A): Species that diverged recently from a common ancestor share more
similarities than those that diverged long ago.

Reason (R): Branching descent is a key concept of Darwinism that traces the divergence of life
forms over geological periods.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
150.What is the ultimate evolutionary outcome of natural selection in a population over long
geological periods?

I. The selected advantageous traits become fixed in the population.

II. The population becomes better adapted to its environment.

III. New species arise from the diverging branches.

IV. All genetic variations are completely eliminated, leaving a clonal population.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)II and IV only
(3)All of the above
(4)I, II, and III
151.Assertion (A): In a given population, one can find the frequency of occurrence of alleles of
a gene on a locus, and this frequency remains constant and even remains the same through
generations.

Reason (R): The sum total of all the allelic frequencies in a population is constant and equal to
one.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
152.In a diploid population under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which of the following
algebraic expressions represent genotype frequencies correctly according to NCERT?

I. The frequency of allele A is represented as p.

II. The frequency of allele a is represented as q.

III. The frequency of AA individuals in a population is p^2.

IV. The frequency of aa individuals is q^2, and the frequency of Aa is 2pq.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III only
(2)I and IV only
(3)All of the above
(4)II and IV only
153.Assertion (A): Disturbance in genetic equilibrium, or Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, is
interpreted as resulting in evolutionary change.

Reason (R): Disturbing the equilibrium changes the allele frequencies in a population,
indicating that the gene pool is evolving.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
154.Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is affected by five specific factors. Which of the following
factors is/are listed in NCERT?

I. Gene migration or gene flow

II. Genetic drift

III. Mutation

IV. Genetic recombination

V. Natural selection
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and V only
(2)All of the above
(3)I, III, and V only
(4)II, III, and IV only
155.Assertion (A): Sometimes, the change in allele frequency in a small migrated population is
so different that they become a new species.

Reason (R): The original drifted population becomes founders, and the change in their gene
pool is referred to as the founder effect.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
156.Natural selection can lead to different phenotypic outcomes in a population. Which of the
following matches are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. Stabilising selection: More individuals acquire mean character value.

II. Directional selection: More individuals acquire value other than the mean character value.

III. Disruptive selection: More individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends of
the distribution curve.

IV. Stabilising selection: The peak shifts in one direction.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)II and IV only
(3)I and II only
(4)All of the above
157.Assertion (A): Under stabilising selection, the phenotypic distribution curve of a
population becomes higher and narrower.

Reason (R): Natural selection eliminates individuals at both phenotypic extremes and favors
those with the intermediate (mean) character value.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
158.Which of the following evolutionary scenarios from previous sections of the chapter
represents directional selection?

I. Industrial melanism: selection of dark-winged moths over light-winged moths in polluted
areas.

II. Antibiotic resistance: selection of resistant bacteria over sensitive bacteria.

III. Birth weight in human babies: selection of intermediate weights over very light or very
heavy weights.

IV. Darwin's finches: diversification into multiple beak shapes on Galapagos.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)I and II
(3)II and IV only
(4)I and III only
159.Assertion (A): Disruptive selection results in a bimodal phenotypic distribution curve
containing two separate peaks.

Reason (R): Natural selection selects for the mean character value, leading to the division of a
single population into two distinct sub-populations.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
160.Consider the algebraic terms in the Hardy-Weinberg equation p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1.
Identify the CORRECT statements:

I. The term 2pq represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals (Aa).

II. The term p^2 represents the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype (AA).

III. The term q^2 represents the frequency of the recessive allele (a) in the population.

IV. The sum of p and q must always equal 1 in a two-allele system.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and IV
(4)II, III, and IV
161.Assertion (A): Gene migration can lead to gene flow across different populations.

Reason (R): If gene migration happens multiple times, there is a continuous transfer of genes,
maintaining differences between the populations.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
162.Regarding genetic drift, which of the following is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. It involves a change in gene frequencies that occurs by chance.

II. It operates most effectively in very large, panmictic populations.

III. It can cause rare alleles to become lost or fixed purely by chance.

IV. It is also referred to as Sewall Wright effect.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and III
(2)I, II, and III
(3)I, III, and IV
(4)II and IV only
163.Assertion (A): Directional selection causes the mean value of a phenotypic trait in a
population to shift over time.

Reason (R): Under directional selection, nature selects for individuals at one phenotypic
extreme, shifting the curve peak toward that value.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
164.Which of the following conditions must be met to maintain Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
in a population?

I. Large population size (no genetic drift).

II. No gene flow or migration.

III. No mutations occurring in the gene pool.

IV. Random mating among individuals.

V. Complete absence of natural selection.
Choose the correct combination:
(1)I, II, and III only
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and IV only
(4)II, III, and V only
165.Assertion (A): Genetic recombination is a major factor that disrupts Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium in sexually reproducing populations.

Reason (R): Recombination reshuffles alleles during crossing over in meiosis, generating new
combinations of genes that alter allele frequencies in the gene pool.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
166.How does a researcher determine the occurrence and extent of evolutionary change in a
population using Hardy-Weinberg principles?

I. By measuring actual allele and genotype frequencies in the population.

II. By calculating the expected genotype frequencies using p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1.

III. By finding the difference between the measured values and the expected values.

IV. A larger difference indicates a greater extent of evolutionary change.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III only
(2)I and IV only
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
167.Assertion (A): In a population with two alleles (A and a) at a locus, the frequency of allele
A plus the frequency of allele a must equal 1.

Reason (R): The binomial expansion of the allele frequencies is represented as p^2 + 2pq + q^2
= 1.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
168.Regarding disruptive selection, which of the following is/are CORRECT?

I. It selects for extreme phenotypes and selects against the intermediate phenotype.

II. It split the population into two distinct phenotypic classes.

III. An example is the selection of very small and very large seeds in a habitat, leaving
intermediate seeds uneaten.

IV. It always shifts the entire population peak in one single direction.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and IV only
(4)I and IV only
169.Assertion (A): When a section of a population migrates to another place, gene frequencies
change in the original population but remain unchanged in the new population.

Reason (R): Gene migration introduces new genes/alleles to the new population and removes
them from the old population.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
170.Which of the following factors introduces new genetic variations into a population
according to NCERT?

I. Mutation

II. Genetic recombination during sexual reproduction

III. Genetic drift

IV. Stabilising natural selection
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I and II
(3)I, II, and III
(4)All of the above
171.Assertion (A): Genetic drift has a significant impact on allele frequencies in small
populations but is negligible in very large populations.

Reason (R): Random chance sampling events have a larger proportional effect when the total
pool of individuals is small.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
172.According to NCERT Figure 6.8, what happens to the phenotype distribution curve under
stabilizing selection?

I. The peak gets higher.

II. The peak gets narrower.

III. The peak shifts to the right.

IV. Two separate peaks are formed.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II
(2)All of the above
(3)II and IV only
(4)I, II, and III
173.Assertion (A): Non-random mating disrupts Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and changes
allele frequencies over generations.

Reason (R): In non-random mating (like selfing or assortative mating), certain genotypes mate
preferentially, altering the genotype frequencies in the population.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
174.According to NCERT Figure 6.8, which of the following is/are CORRECT for directional
selection?

I. The peak shifts in one direction.

II. Individuals at one extreme of the distribution are favored.

III. The peak gets higher and narrower in the center.

IV. Two peaks are formed on both sides of the mean.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)I and II
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
175.Assertion (A): Under disruptive selection, the single peak of the phenotypic distribution
curve splits into two peaks.

Reason (R): Natural selection selects for individuals with intermediate phenotypes, decreasing
their frequency in the population.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
176.In a population under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if the frequency of the recessive
phenotype (aa) is 0.09, what are the allele frequencies of A and a?

I. The frequency of the recessive allele (a) is 0.3.

II. The frequency of the dominant allele (A) is 0.7.

III. The frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype (AA) is 0.49.

IV. The frequency of the heterozygous genotype (Aa) is 0.42.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)II, III, and IV
(3)I, II, and IV
(4)All of the above
177.Assertion (A): The total gene pool of a population consists of all the genes and their alleles
present in that population.

Reason (R): In Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the gene pool remains constant from generation to
generation, showing that no evolution is taking place.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
178.Regarding the founder effect, which of the following is/are CORRECT according to
NCERT?

I. It occurs when a small sample of a population drifts to a new location.

II. The drifted population has allele frequencies that differ by chance from the original
population.

III. The drifted population becomes the founders of a new population.

IV. The founder effect is a form of natural selection that selects for the best-fit individuals.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
179.Assertion (A): Mutations change allele frequencies in a population very slowly compared
to other factors like gene flow or selection.

Reason (R): Mutation rates in nature are generally very low, making mutation a weak force for
changing allele frequencies directly.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
180.Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding the relationship between Hardy-
Weinberg deviations and evolution?

I. A deviation from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium indicates that evolution is occurring in the
population.

II. The direction of the difference between measured and expected frequencies indicates the
direction of evolutionary change.

III. The magnitude of the deviation reflects the extent of evolutionary change.

IV. If there is zero deviation, it means the population is in a state of rapid evolutionary
divergence.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I and II only
(3)All of the above
(4)I, II, and III
181.Assertion (A): The first cellular forms of life appeared on Earth approximately 2000
million years ago.

Reason (R): Some of these early cells had the ability to release Oxygen through light reactions
similar to photosynthesis.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
182.Regarding the early geological milestones of life on Earth, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. Invertebrates were formed and active around 500 mya.

II. Jawless fish probably evolved around 350 mya.

III. Seaweeds and few plants existed probably around 320 mya.

IV. Plants were the first organisms to colonize land, invading land before animals.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III only
(2)All of the above
(3)I and IV only
(4)II and IV only
183.Assertion (A): Jawless fish probably evolved around 350 million years ago.

Reason (R): They were the first land vertebrates that developed lungs to breathe air.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
184.Regarding the fish caught in South Africa in 1938, which of the following statements
is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. It was a Coelacanth, which was thought to be extinct.

II. It belongs to the group called lobefins.

III. These fish could move on land and go back to water.

IV. These lobefins were the direct ancestors of modern-day mammals.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)II, III, and IV
(3)All of the above
(4)I and II only
185.Assertion (A): Lobefins are considered the ancestors of the first amphibians that lived on
both land and water.

Reason (R): There are numerous fossil intermediates and living specimens of these early land-
transition fish preserved in museums today.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
186.Regarding the evolution of amphibians and reptiles, which of the following statements
is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. The first amphibians were ancestors of modern-day frogs and salamanders.

II. Amphibians gradually evolved into reptiles over geological periods.

III. Reptiles lay thick-shelled eggs which do not dry up in the sun unlike those of amphibians.

IV. Modern frogs and salamanders lay thick-shelled eggs on land.
(1)I and II only
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II, III, and IV
(4)All of the above
187.Assertion (A): Reptiles were able to colonize land more successfully and dominate over
amphibians.

Reason (R): Reptiles lay thick-shelled eggs which do not dry up in the sun, freeing them from
the necessity of water for reproduction.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
188.Regarding the return of land reptiles to water, which of the following is/are CORRECT
according to NCERT?

I. Some of the land reptiles went back into water to evolve into fish-like reptiles.

II. This transition occurred approximately 200 million years ago.

III. An example of these fish-like water reptiles is Ichthyosaurs.

IV. Ichthyosaurs were the direct ancestors of modern-day dolphins and whales.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)II, III, and IV
(3)I, II, and III
(4)All of the above
189.Assertion (A): Tyrannosaurus rex was a giant fearsome land reptile that stood about 20
feet in height.

Reason (R): It had huge, fearsome dagger-like teeth that allowed it to act as a dominant
terrestrial carnivore.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
190.Regarding the sudden extinction of dinosaurs, which of the following is/are CORRECT
according to NCERT?

I. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the Earth about 65 mya.

II. The exact reason for their disappearance is not known with certainty.

III. One hypothesis suggests that climatic changes killed them.

IV. Another hypothesis suggests that most of them evolved into birds.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)II and IV only
(3)I, II, and III only
(4)I and IV only
191.Assertion (A): The first mammals appeared soon after the extinction of dinosaurs and
were large, dominant herbivores.

Reason (R): Mammals were viviparous and protected their unborn young inside the mother's
body, which gave them a survival edge over reptiles.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
192.According to NCERT, which of the following traits made mammals more fit than other
animals in the post-dinosaur era?

I. They were viviparous.

II. They protected their unborn young inside the mother's body.

III. They were more intelligent in sensing and avoiding danger.

IV. They possessed ectothermic (cold-blooded) metabolisms to conserve energy.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)All of the above
(3)II and IV only
(4)I, II, and III
193.Assertion (A): When South America joined North America during geological history,
South American marsupials were overridden by North American fauna.

Reason (R): North American fauna consisted of highly evolved placental mammals that had
competitive advantages over the South American marsupials.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
194.Regarding the survival of marsupials in Australia, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. They survived because Australia remained geographically isolated from other continents.

II. There was a lack of competition from placental mammals in Australia.

III. Continental drift prevented placental mammals from invading Australia.

IV. They developed placental connections to compete with invading placental mammals.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I, II, and III
(3)I and II only
(4)II and IV only
195.Assertion (A): Plants were already established on land when the first animals invaded
land.

Reason (R): Seaweeds and few plants existed probably around 320 mya, whereas jawless fish
evolved around 350 mya.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
196.Regarding the capabilities of the first land-transition fish (lobefins), which of the
following is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. They had stout and strong fins.

II. They could move on land and go back to water.

III. They were caught alive in South Africa in 1938.

IV. They spent their entire life cycle on land without returning to water.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I and II only
(3)All of the above
(4)I, II, and III
197.Assertion (A): Reptile eggs do not dry up in the sun like amphibian eggs.

Reason (R): Reptile eggs possess a thick, calcareous shell that prevents water loss while allowing
gas exchange.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
198.Regarding the dinosaurs, which of the following is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. They were the dominant land reptiles during their era.

II. The biggest dinosaur was Tyrannosaurus rex.

III. Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 feet in height.

IV. They dominated the Earth for about 500 million years.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I, II, and III
(3)I and II only
(4)All of the above
199.Assertion (A): Ichthyosaurs are fish-like reptiles that evolved in water.

Reason (R): They arose because some primitive fish developed lungs and legs, allowing them to
crawl back into water.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
200.What are the characteristics of the first mammals and their fossils as described in
NCERT?

I. The first mammals were like shrews.

II. Their fossils are small-sized.

III. They were highly specialized aquatic carnivores.

IV. They had large, heavy bones similar to reptiles.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II
(2)I, II, and III
(3)II and IV only
(4)All of the above
201.Assertion (A): The Coelacanth was considered completely extinct until a living specimen
was caught in 1938.

Reason (R): In 1938, a living Coelacanth was caught off the coast of South Africa.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
202.Which of the following timelines is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. Disappearance of dinosaurs: 65 mya.

II. Evolution of Ichthyosaurs: 200 mya.

III. Jawless fish evolution: 350 mya.

IV. First cellular forms: 2000 mya.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and IV only
(3)II and IV only
(4)I, II, and III only
203.Assertion (A): South America originally possessed a unique fauna of mammals, including
horse, hippopotamus, and bear equivalents.

Reason (R): South America was geographically connected to Australia, allowing marsupials to
freely migrate and diversify.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
204.According to NCERT, which of the following are characteristics of Tyrannosaurus rex?

I. It was the biggest of the dinosaurs.

II. It stood about 20 feet in height.

III. It had huge, fearsome dagger-like teeth.

IV. It was a plant-eating herbivore with flat grinding teeth.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and III
(4)I and II only
205.Assertion (A): Plants were the first organisms to colonize land.

Reason (R): Plants were already widespread on land when the first animals invaded land.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
206.Regarding the lobefins, which of the following statements is/are CORRECT according to
NCERT?

I. They evolved into the first amphibians.

II. They had stout and strong fins.

III. They could move on land and go back to water.

IV. The Coelacanth is a living representative of this group.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and IV only
(3)II and IV only
(4)I, II, and III only
207.Assertion (A): Mammals had a higher survival rate compared to reptiles in the post-
dinosaur era.

Reason (R): Mammals protect their unborn young inside the mother's body, shielding them
from environmental hazards and predators.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
208.According to the text, what occurred to the reptile and mammal populations after the
disappearance of dinosaurs?

I. Mammals took over the Earth.

II. Reptiles continued to dominate all land habitats.

III. Reptiles retreated into minor roles on land.

IV. Both reptiles and mammals went extinct simultaneously.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)II and IV
(3)I and II
(4)I and III
209.Assertion (A): All dinosaurs were completely wiped out by climatic changes and left no
living descendants.

Reason (R): One hypothesis for dinosaur disappearance is that most of them evolved into birds.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
210.Regarding the ancient fauna of South America before joining North America, which of
the following is/are CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. They had mammals representing horse and hippopotamus equivalents.

II. They had mammals representing bear and rabbit equivalents.

III. They were completely composed of pouched marsupials with no placental-like animals.

IV. They evolved in isolation due to continental drift.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and II only
(3)II, III, and IV
(4)I, II, and IV
211.Assertion (A): Dryopithecus was more man-like, whereas Ramapithecus was more ape-
like in their characteristics.

Reason (R): Both primates existed about 15 million years ago, were hairy, and walked like
gorillas and chimpanzees.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
212.Regarding fossils discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. Few fossils of man-like bones were discovered around 3-4 mya.

II. These fossils represented hominids that stood about 6 feet tall.

III. These hominids walked upright and lived in East African grasslands.

IV. They had a brain capacity of approximately 1400 cc.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)II and IV only
(3)I and IV only
(4)I and III
213.Assertion (A): Australopithecines lived in the East African grasslands probably 2 million
years ago.

Reason (R): They hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
214.Regarding the first human-like hominid, *Homo habilis*, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. It was the first human-like being, a hominid.

II. Its brain capacity was between 650-800 cc.

III. They probably did not eat meat.

IV. They evolved directly from Neanderthal man.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II, III, and IV
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and III
(4)I and II only
215.Assertion (A): Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage of human
evolution, *Homo erectus*, around 1.5 million years ago.

Reason (R): *Homo erectus* had a large brain of about 900 cc, and they probably ate meat.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
216.Regarding the Neanderthal man, which of the following statements is/are CORRECT
according to NCERT?

I. They had a brain size of 1400 cc.

II. They lived in near East and Central Asia.

III. They existed between 100,000-40,000 years back.

IV. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)II and IV only
(3)I, II, and III only
(4)I and IV only
217.Assertion (A): Modern *Homo sapiens* arose in Africa and moved across continents,
developing into distinct races.

Reason (R): During the ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago, modern *Homo sapiens* arose.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
218.Regarding the cultural evolution of modern humans, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago.

II. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started.

III. Pre-historic cave art was developed by Neanderthal man.

IV. Agriculture started in East Africa 100,000 years back.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)I and IV only
(3)I and II
(4)I, II, and III
219.Assertion (A): Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were primates existing about 15 million
years ago.

Reason (R): They were completely hairless and walked upright like modern humans.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
220.Regarding the hominid fossils discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania, which of the
following represents their features?

I. They existed around 3-4 million years ago.

II. They walked upright.

III. They were probably not taller than 4 feet.

IV. They had huge fearsome claws and canine teeth.
Choose the correct combination:
(1)I and II only
(2)I, II, and III
(3)All of the above
(4)II, III, and IV
221.Assertion (A): *Homo habilis* is believed to have been a herbivorous hominid.

Reason (R): The brain capacity of *Homo habilis* was between 650-800 cc.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
222.Regarding *Homo erectus*, which of the following is/are CORRECT according to
NCERT?

I. They evolved around 1.5 million years ago.

II. Their fossils were discovered in Java in 1891.

III. They had a brain capacity of approximately 900 cc.

IV. They probably did not eat meat, living purely on fruits.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I, II, and III
(3)I and II only
(4)II, III, and IV
223.Assertion (A): Neanderthal man is considered to have possessed a highly developed social
and spiritual culture compared to earlier hominids.

Reason (R): They were the first hominids recorded to bury their dead and use animal hides to
protect their bodies.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
224.Regarding the origin of modern *Homo sapiens*, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. They arose in Africa.

II. They arose during the Ice Age between 75,000-10,000 years ago.

III. They migrated across continents and developed into distinct races.

IV. They possessed a brain capacity of exactly 900 cc.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II only
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and III
(4)II, III, and IV
225.Assertion (A): The start of agriculture about 10,000 years ago led to the establishment of
permanent human settlements.

Reason (R): Agriculture provided a stable, local food source, freeing humans from the necessity
of constant nomadic hunting and gathering.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
226.Which of the following represents the CORRECT ascending order of brain capacities of
hominids as stated in NCERT?

I. *Homo habilis* (650-800 cc)

II. *Homo erectus* (900 cc)

III. Neanderthal man (1400 cc)

IV. Australopithecines (1600 cc)
Choose the correct option:
(1)I →\rightarrow II →\rightarrow IV →\rightarrow III
(2)II →\rightarrow I →\rightarrow III
(3)I →\rightarrow II →\rightarrow III
(4)All of the above
227.Assertion (A): Ramapithecus is considered more man-like compared to Dryopithecus.

Reason (R): Ramapithecus possessed a fully developed chin, small canines, and a brain capacity
of 900 cc.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
228.Regarding the prehistoric cave paintings mentioned in NCERT, which of the following
is/are CORRECT?

I. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago.

II. One famous cave with these paintings is the Bhimbetka rock shelter in Madhya Pradesh.

III. The paintings depict daily activities, animals, and hunting scenes.

IV. The paintings were created by Neanderthal man during the Ice Age.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II, III, and IV
(2)I, II, and III
(3)I and II only
(4)All of the above
229.Assertion (A): *Homo habilis* probably did not eat meat.

Reason (R): *Homo habilis* lacked tools and therefore could not hunt or process large game
animals.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
230.Which of the following timelines is/are CORRECTLY matched according to NCERT?

I. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus: 15 mya.

II. Australopithecines: 2 mya.

III. Neanderthal man: 100,000-40,000 years ago.

IV. Agriculture start: 10,000 years ago.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and IV only
(3)I, II, and III only
(4)II and IV only
231.Assertion (A): Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus walked like gorillas and chimpanzees.

Reason (R): They were hairy primates existing about 15 million years ago.
(1)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
232.Regarding the lifestyle of Australopithecines, which of the following is/are CORRECT
according to NCERT?

I. They lived in East African grasslands.

II. They hunted with stone weapons.

III. They essentially ate fruit.

IV. They probably did not eat meat.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III only
(2)II and IV only
(3)I and IV only
(4)All of the above
233.Assertion (A): The brain capacity of the first human-like being, *Homo habilis*, was
between 650-800 cc.

Reason (R): *Homo habilis* had a larger brain capacity than *Homo erectus*, which had a
brain around 900 cc.
(1)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
234.Regarding the discovery of *Homo erectus* fossils, which of the following is/are
CORRECT according to NCERT?

I. The fossils were discovered in Java.

II. The fossils were discovered in the year 1891.

III. The fossils were discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania.

IV. The discovery was made by Charles Darwin during his Beagle voyage.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I and II
(2)I and IV only
(3)I, II, and III
(4)II and IV only
235.Assertion (A): Neanderthal man lived in the Near East and Central Asia.

Reason (R): They existed between 100,000-40,000 years back during the Miocene epoch.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
236.Regarding the Bhimbetka rock shelter paintings, which of the following is/are CORRECT
according to NCERT?

I. They are located in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.

II. They represent pre-historic cave art.

III. They were painted approximately 18,000 years ago.

IV. They depict dinosaurs and marine reptiles like Ichthyosaurs.
Choose the correct option:
(1)II and IV only
(2)All of the above
(3)I, II, and III
(4)I and II only
237.Assertion (A): Agriculture came around 10,000 years ago and initiated permanent human
settlements.

Reason (R): Agriculture allowed populations to grow exponentially without any check, leading
to urban cities immediately.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(4)(A) is false but (R) is true.
238.Read the following statements regarding hominid evolution and identify the CORRECT
combinations:

I. *Homo habilis* had a brain capacity of 650-800 cc and probably did not eat meat.

II. *Homo erectus* had a brain capacity of 900 cc and probably ate meat.

III. Neanderthal man had a brain capacity of 1400 cc and buried their dead.

IV. Australopithecines had a brain capacity of 1400 cc and were large carnivores.
Choose the correct option:
(1)I, II, and III
(2)II, III, and IV
(3)I and II only
(4)All of the above
239.Assertion (A): Hominid fossils discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania belong to primates
that existed about 3-4 million years ago.

Reason (R): These hominids were about 6-8 feet tall and ran on all fours.
(1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is false but (R) is true.
(4)(A) is true but (R) is false.
240.Regarding modern *Homo sapiens*, which of the following is/are CORRECT according
to NCERT?

I. They arose during the Ice Age between 75,000-10,000 years ago.

II. They originated in Africa.

III. They migrated across continents and developed into distinct races.

IV. They developed pre-historic cave art about 18,000 years ago.
Choose the correct option:
(1)All of the above
(2)I and IV only
(3)II and IV only
(4)I, II, and III only
NEET ]240[ Contd...

Answer Key

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