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NEET ]1[ Contd...
NEET UG Biology Evolution
Instructions:
- Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
- Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
- Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
- Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Which statement best expresses the scope of evolutionary biology as given in the chapter?
2.Which pair is correctly matched?
3.According to the PDF, the Big Bang theory is associated with which sequence?
4.Choose the correct statement about early earth.
5.Which set contains gases/components explicitly described for early earth atmosphere or its transformation?
6.Life appeared on earth approximately:
7.Panspermia is the idea that:
8.Which scientist dismissed spontaneous generation once and for all through careful experiments?
9.Oparin and Haldane mainly proposed that first life arose after:
10.In Miller's experiment, electric discharge was passed through a closed flask containing:
11.Which observation supports the idea that chemical processes forming organic molecules may occur elsewhere in space?
12.Which statement is correct about earliest life forms?
13.Which claim is NOT a connotation of special creation?
14.Darwin's conclusions were based significantly on observations during voyage on:
15.Which statement agrees with the PDF?
16.In Darwinian usage in the chapter, fitness ultimately means:
17.Natural selection, as used by Darwin in the chapter, selects organisms that:
18.Alfred Wallace reached conclusions similar to Darwin while working in:
19.Similarity among existing life forms is interpreted as evidence that they:
20.Which statement is correct?
21.Fossils are:
22.Sedimentary layers are useful because:
23.Evidence from fossils in different sedimentary layers is called:
24.The chapter reminds students that fossil ages can be estimated by:
25.Which pairing is correct?
26.Whales, bats, cheetah and humans support evolution because their forelimbs:
27.Homologous organs arise due to:
28.Which plant pair represents homology in the PDF?
29.Analogous structures are best described as:
30.Human domestication and selective breeding are used in the chapter to argue that:
31.Identify the correct statements.
A. Early earth received water vapour, methane, carbon dioxide and ammonia from molten mass.
B. UV rays split water into hydrogen and oxygen.
C. Lighter hydrogen escaped.
D. Oceans formed before earth cooled enough for rain.
A. Early earth received water vapour, methane, carbon dioxide and ammonia from molten mass.
B. UV rays split water into hydrogen and oxygen.
C. Lighter hydrogen escaped.
D. Oceans formed before earth cooled enough for rain.
32.Choose the correct combination.
A. Panspermia involves transfer of spores/life units from outer space.
B. Spontaneous generation was supported by Pasteur.
C. Oparin-Haldane proposed chemical evolution before life.
D. Chemical evolution means organic molecules from inorganic constituents.
A. Panspermia involves transfer of spores/life units from outer space.
B. Spontaneous generation was supported by Pasteur.
C. Oparin-Haldane proposed chemical evolution before life.
D. Chemical evolution means organic molecules from inorganic constituents.
33.Given statements about Miller-type experiments:
A. A reducing atmosphere was simulated.
B. The closed flask contained CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour.
C. Amino acids were observed by Miller.
D. Sugars and nitrogen bases were observed in similar experiments.
E. Meteorite analysis contradicted these observations.
A. A reducing atmosphere was simulated.
B. The closed flask contained CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour.
C. Amino acids were observed by Miller.
D. Sugars and nitrogen bases were observed in similar experiments.
E. Meteorite analysis contradicted these observations.
34.Which statements are correct?
A. We know exactly how the first self-replicating metabolic capsule arose.
B. Non-cellular forms may have been giant molecules.
C. First cellular forms possibly originated around 2000 mya.
D. Early cellular life was probably aquatic.
A. We know exactly how the first self-replicating metabolic capsule arose.
B. Non-cellular forms may have been giant molecules.
C. First cellular forms possibly originated around 2000 mya.
D. Early cellular life was probably aquatic.
35.Which statements fit the Darwinian account in the chapter?
A. Existing forms share similarities with extinct forms.
B. Extinctions occurred in earth history.
C. New life forms arose at different periods.
D. Diversity has always been unchanged since creation.
A. Existing forms share similarities with extinct forms.
B. Extinctions occurred in earth history.
C. New life forms arose at different periods.
D. Diversity has always been unchanged since creation.
36.Select correct statements.
A. Populations have built-in variation.
B. Survival advantage under natural conditions may lead to more progeny.
C. Darwinian fitness ultimately means reproductive fitness.
D. Natural selection selects organisms that are physically strongest irrespective of reproduction.
A. Populations have built-in variation.
B. Survival advantage under natural conditions may lead to more progeny.
C. Darwinian fitness ultimately means reproductive fitness.
D. Natural selection selects organisms that are physically strongest irrespective of reproduction.
37.Which statements are correct about fossils?
A. Fossils are remains of hard parts in rocks.
B. Rock sediments occur in layered arrangement.
C. Different sediments may contain different fossils.
D. Fossils show no restriction of life forms to geological time-spans.
A. Fossils are remains of hard parts in rocks.
B. Rock sediments occur in layered arrangement.
C. Different sediments may contain different fossils.
D. Fossils show no restriction of life forms to geological time-spans.
38.Choose correct statements.
A. Haeckel used vertebrate embryonic similarities to support evolution.
B. Vertebrate embryos may show vestigial gill slits behind the head.
C. Gill slits are functional in adult humans.
D. von Baer noted embryos do not pass through adult stages of other animals.
A. Haeckel used vertebrate embryonic similarities to support evolution.
B. Vertebrate embryos may show vestigial gill slits behind the head.
C. Gill slits are functional in adult humans.
D. von Baer noted embryos do not pass through adult stages of other animals.
39.Which statements correctly describe homology?
A. Homology indicates common ancestry.
B. It is based on divergent evolution.
C. Mammalian forelimbs may share humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges.
D. Homology means different structures evolved for same function without anatomical similarity.
A. Homology indicates common ancestry.
B. It is based on divergent evolution.
C. Mammalian forelimbs may share humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges.
D. Homology means different structures evolved for same function without anatomical similarity.
40.Identify correct statements about analogy.
A. Butterfly and bird wings are analogous.
B. Octopus and mammal eyes are examples of analogy.
C. Sweet potato and potato are analogous despite being root and stem modifications.
D. Analogous organs are produced by divergent evolution.
A. Butterfly and bird wings are analogous.
B. Octopus and mammal eyes are examples of analogy.
C. Sweet potato and potato are analogous despite being root and stem modifications.
D. Analogous organs are produced by divergent evolution.
41.Select the correct statements.
A. Before industrialisation, white-winged moths were more common.
B. After industrialisation, dark-winged moths became more common.
C. Predators spot moths against contrasting backgrounds.
D. Industrial soot made tree trunks lighter.
A. Before industrialisation, white-winged moths were more common.
B. After industrialisation, dark-winged moths became more common.
C. Predators spot moths against contrasting backgrounds.
D. Industrial soot made tree trunks lighter.
42.Which statements are correct?
A. Lichens can indicate industrial pollution because they do not grow in polluted areas.
B. Camouflage contributed to moth survival.
C. In rural/non-industrial areas, melanic moth count was low.
D. Natural selection completely wipes out every non-favoured variant.
A. Lichens can indicate industrial pollution because they do not grow in polluted areas.
B. Camouflage contributed to moth survival.
C. In rural/non-industrial areas, melanic moth count was low.
D. Natural selection completely wipes out every non-favoured variant.
43.Choose the correct statements.
A. Excess herbicides and pesticides select resistant varieties.
B. Antibiotics/drugs may select resistant microbes/cells within months or years.
C. These are examples of evolution by anthropogenic action.
D. Evolution is a directed deterministic process.
A. Excess herbicides and pesticides select resistant varieties.
B. Antibiotics/drugs may select resistant microbes/cells within months or years.
C. These are examples of evolution by anthropogenic action.
D. Evolution is a directed deterministic process.
44.Identify the correct statements.
A. Darwin observed finches in the Galapagos Islands.
B. Different beaks evolved from original seed-eating features.
C. Adaptive radiation involves radiating from a point into different habitats.
D. Darwin's finches are not an example of adaptive radiation.
A. Darwin observed finches in the Galapagos Islands.
B. Different beaks evolved from original seed-eating features.
C. Adaptive radiation involves radiating from a point into different habitats.
D. Darwin's finches are not an example of adaptive radiation.
45.Choose correct statements.
A. Australian marsupials evolved from an ancestral stock within Australia.
B. More than one adaptive radiation in an isolated area may be called convergent evolution.
C. Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf-marsupial are given as similar forms.
D. Australian placentals and marsupials prove spontaneous generation.
A. Australian marsupials evolved from an ancestral stock within Australia.
B. More than one adaptive radiation in an isolated area may be called convergent evolution.
C. Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf-marsupial are given as similar forms.
D. Australian placentals and marsupials prove spontaneous generation.
46.Select correct statements.
A. Natural selection in true sense started with metabolically different cellular forms.
B. Natural selection is the essence of Darwinian theory.
C. Rate of appearance of new forms is linked to life span/life cycle.
D. Slow-dividing organisms necessarily evolve faster than microbes.
A. Natural selection in true sense started with metabolically different cellular forms.
B. Natural selection is the essence of Darwinian theory.
C. Rate of appearance of new forms is linked to life span/life cycle.
D. Slow-dividing organisms necessarily evolve faster than microbes.
47.Which statements are correct for the bacterial example?
A. Initial bacterial population has built-in variation.
B. Changed medium selects the variant that can survive.
C. Variant B outgrows others and may appear as a new species within days.
D. Fitness of B is independent of environmental conditions.
A. Initial bacterial population has built-in variation.
B. Changed medium selects the variant that can survive.
C. Variant B outgrows others and may appear as a new species within days.
D. Fitness of B is independent of environmental conditions.
48.Choose the correct statements.
A. Selection requires inherited characteristics to have a genetic basis.
B. Adaptive ability is inherited.
C. Fitness is linked to adaptation and selection.
D. Fitness in the chapter means only body size.
A. Selection requires inherited characteristics to have a genetic basis.
B. Adaptive ability is inherited.
C. Fitness is linked to adaptation and selection.
D. Fitness in the chapter means only body size.
49.Identify correct statements.
A. Branching descent and natural selection are key Darwinian concepts.
B. Lamarck explained giraffe necks by use/disuse and inheritance of acquired characters.
C. The chapter says Lamarck's giraffe explanation is accepted today.
D. The chapter discusses evolution as both a process and as a consequence of natural selection depending on context.
A. Branching descent and natural selection are key Darwinian concepts.
B. Lamarck explained giraffe necks by use/disuse and inheritance of acquired characters.
C. The chapter says Lamarck's giraffe explanation is accepted today.
D. The chapter discusses evolution as both a process and as a consequence of natural selection depending on context.
50.Which statements form the factual basis of natural selection as presented?
A. Natural resources are limited.
B. Population sizes are relatively stable except seasonal fluctuation.
C. Members vary and many variations are inherited.
D. Real populations grow exponentially without limitation forever.
A. Natural resources are limited.
B. Population sizes are relatively stable except seasonal fluctuation.
C. Members vary and many variations are inherited.
D. Real populations grow exponentially without limitation forever.
51.Choose correct statements.
A. Heritable variation improving resource use may allow more reproduction.
B. Survivors leaving more progeny can change population characteristics over generations.
C. New forms appear without change in population characteristics.
D. Reproduction is irrelevant to selection.
A. Heritable variation improving resource use may allow more reproduction.
B. Survivors leaving more progeny can change population characteristics over generations.
C. New forms appear without change in population characteristics.
D. Reproduction is irrelevant to selection.
52.Identify correct statements.
A. Mendel had talked of inheritable factors affecting phenotype.
B. Darwin ignored or was silent about Mendel's observations.
C. de Vries worked on evening primrose.
D. de Vries believed only minor Darwinian variations caused evolution.
A. Mendel had talked of inheritable factors affecting phenotype.
B. Darwin ignored or was silent about Mendel's observations.
C. de Vries worked on evening primrose.
D. de Vries believed only minor Darwinian variations caused evolution.
53.Choose correct statements.
A. Mutations are random and directionless.
B. Darwinian variations are described as small and directional.
C. Darwin viewed evolution as gradual.
D. de Vries used saltation for single-step large mutation.
A. Mutations are random and directionless.
B. Darwinian variations are described as small and directional.
C. Darwin viewed evolution as gradual.
D. de Vries used saltation for single-step large mutation.
54.Identify correct statements.
A. Allele frequencies may remain constant through generations.
B. Constant gene pool is genetic equilibrium.
C. Sum total of allelic frequencies is 1.
D. Hardy-Weinberg principle says allele frequencies always become zero.
A. Allele frequencies may remain constant through generations.
B. Constant gene pool is genetic equilibrium.
C. Sum total of allelic frequencies is 1.
D. Hardy-Weinberg principle says allele frequencies always become zero.
55.In Hardy-Weinberg terms, choose the correct combination.
A. p = frequency of A allele.
B. q = frequency of a allele.
C. AA frequency = p².
D. Aa frequency = q².
A. p = frequency of A allele.
B. q = frequency of a allele.
C. AA frequency = p².
D. Aa frequency = q².
56.Which statements are correct?
A. Difference between observed and expected frequencies indicates evolutionary change.
B. Disturbance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is interpreted as evolution.
C. Allele-frequency change cannot be evolution.
D. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium always demands natural selection.
A. Difference between observed and expected frequencies indicates evolutionary change.
B. Disturbance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is interpreted as evolution.
C. Allele-frequency change cannot be evolution.
D. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium always demands natural selection.
57.Which statements are correct?
A. Gene migration, drift, mutation, recombination and natural selection affect equilibrium.
B. Migration changes gene frequencies in both old and new populations.
C. Repeated migration is gene flow.
D. Genetic drift is a chance change in allele frequency.
E. Founder effect involves original drifted population becoming founders.
A. Gene migration, drift, mutation, recombination and natural selection affect equilibrium.
B. Migration changes gene frequencies in both old and new populations.
C. Repeated migration is gene flow.
D. Genetic drift is a chance change in allele frequency.
E. Founder effect involves original drifted population becoming founders.
58.Choose correct statements.
A. Pre-existing advantageous mutations may be selected in microbial experiments.
B. Natural selection allows heritable survival-enhancing variations to leave more progeny.
C. Mutation, recombination, gene flow and drift can change future allele frequencies.
D. Natural selection acts without reproductive success.
A. Pre-existing advantageous mutations may be selected in microbial experiments.
B. Natural selection allows heritable survival-enhancing variations to leave more progeny.
C. Mutation, recombination, gene flow and drift can change future allele frequencies.
D. Natural selection acts without reproductive success.
59.Match the description with selection type.
A. More individuals acquire mean character value.
B. More individuals acquire a value other than mean.
C. More individuals acquire peripheral values at both ends.
Choose the correct order A, B, C.
A. More individuals acquire mean character value.
B. More individuals acquire a value other than mean.
C. More individuals acquire peripheral values at both ends.
Choose the correct order A, B, C.
60.Select correct statements.
A. First cellular forms appeared around 2000 mya.
B. Mechanism of macromolecular aggregates becoming membrane-bound cells is unknown.
C. Some cells could release oxygen.
D. Early oxygen release is described as unrelated to light reaction/photosynthesis analogy.
A. First cellular forms appeared around 2000 mya.
B. Mechanism of macromolecular aggregates becoming membrane-bound cells is unknown.
C. Some cells could release oxygen.
D. Early oxygen release is described as unrelated to light reaction/photosynthesis analogy.
61.Choose correct statements.
A. Single-celled organisms slowly became multicellular.
B. Invertebrates were formed and active by about 500 mya.
C. Jawless fish evolved around 350 mya.
D. Seaweeds/few plants existed around 320 mya.
A. Single-celled organisms slowly became multicellular.
B. Invertebrates were formed and active by about 500 mya.
C. Jawless fish evolved around 350 mya.
D. Seaweeds/few plants existed around 320 mya.
62.Identify correct statements.
A. Plants were first to invade land and were widespread before animals invaded land.
B. Fish with stout fins could move on land and return to water around 350 mya.
C. Coelacanth was caught in South Africa in 1938.
D. Lobefins evolved into first amphibians.
A. Plants were first to invade land and were widespread before animals invaded land.
B. Fish with stout fins could move on land and return to water around 350 mya.
C. Coelacanth was caught in South Africa in 1938.
D. Lobefins evolved into first amphibians.
63.Which statements are correct?
A. Early amphibians were ancestors of frogs and salamanders.
B. Reptiles lay thick-shelled eggs that do not dry in sun.
C. Turtles, tortoises and crocodiles are modern descendants mentioned.
D. Reptiles dominated for about 20 million years only.
A. Early amphibians were ancestors of frogs and salamanders.
B. Reptiles lay thick-shelled eggs that do not dry in sun.
C. Turtles, tortoises and crocodiles are modern descendants mentioned.
D. Reptiles dominated for about 20 million years only.
64.Select the correct statements.
A. Giant ferns/pteridophytes slowly formed coal deposits.
B. Some land reptiles returned to water as fish-like reptiles such as Ichthyosaurs around 200 mya.
C. First mammals were shrew-like, viviparous and protected unborn young inside the mother's body.
D. Australian pouched mammals survived because of lack of competition from other mammals.
E. Whales, dolphins, seals and sea cows are aquatic mammals.
F. All small reptiles disappeared with dinosaurs.
A. Giant ferns/pteridophytes slowly formed coal deposits.
B. Some land reptiles returned to water as fish-like reptiles such as Ichthyosaurs around 200 mya.
C. First mammals were shrew-like, viviparous and protected unborn young inside the mother's body.
D. Australian pouched mammals survived because of lack of competition from other mammals.
E. Whales, dolphins, seals and sea cows are aquatic mammals.
F. All small reptiles disappeared with dinosaurs.
65.Choose correct statements.
A. Human evolution is linked with language and self-consciousness.
B. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus existed about 15 mya.
C. Ramapithecus was more man-like; Dryopithecus more ape-like.
D. Man-like primates in eastern Africa around 3–4 mya were probably over 8 feet tall.
A. Human evolution is linked with language and self-consciousness.
B. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus existed about 15 mya.
C. Ramapithecus was more man-like; Dryopithecus more ape-like.
D. Man-like primates in eastern Africa around 3–4 mya were probably over 8 feet tall.
66.Identify correct statements.
A. Australopithecines lived in East African grasslands about 2 mya.
B. They hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit.
C. Homo habilis had brain capacity 650–800 cc and probably did not eat meat.
D. Homo erectus had brain around 900 cc and probably ate meat.
A. Australopithecines lived in East African grasslands about 2 mya.
B. They hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit.
C. Homo habilis had brain capacity 650–800 cc and probably did not eat meat.
D. Homo erectus had brain around 900 cc and probably ate meat.
67.Select correct statements.
A. Neanderthal brain size was about 1400 cc.
B. Neanderthals lived in Near East/Central Asia between 100,000 and 40,000 years ago.
C. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and spread across continents.
D. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back.
A. Neanderthal brain size was about 1400 cc.
B. Neanderthals lived in Near East/Central Asia between 100,000 and 40,000 years ago.
C. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and spread across continents.
D. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back.
68.Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
69.All are correct about early earth EXCEPT:
70.Which statement is NOT true?
71.Which statement is incorrect?
72.Which is NOT a correct statement about Miller/similar experiments?
73.Which statement is incorrect?
74.Which is NOT one of the three connotations of special creation?
75.Which statement is incorrect about Darwinian fitness?
76.All are supported by the chapter EXCEPT:
77.Which pair is wrongly matched?
78.Which statement is incorrect?
79.Which is NOT listed as part of the mammalian forelimb bone plan in the PDF?
80.Which statement is incorrect?
81.Which pair is wrongly placed as homologous/analogous according to the chapter?
82.Which statement is incorrect about industrial melanism?
83.All are correct EXCEPT:
84.Which statement is NOT true?
85.Which statement is incorrect?
86.Which pair/statement is incorrect?
87.Which is NOT true for the bacterial example?
88.Which statement is incorrect?
89.Which Hardy-Weinberg statement is incorrect?
90.Which pair is wrongly matched?
91.Match List I with List II.
A. Pasteur B. Oparin-Haldane C. S.L. Miller D. Panspermia
I. Electric discharge experiment II. Life from pre-existing life III. Chemical evolution hypothesis IV. Spores from outer space
A. Pasteur B. Oparin-Haldane C. S.L. Miller D. Panspermia
I. Electric discharge experiment II. Life from pre-existing life III. Chemical evolution hypothesis IV. Spores from outer space
92.Match event with approximate time.
A. Universe B. Earth C. Life appeared D. Non-cellular forms E. Cellular forms
I. 4.5 bya II. 13.8 bya III. ~4 bya IV. ~3 bya V. 2000 mya
A. Universe B. Earth C. Life appeared D. Non-cellular forms E. Cellular forms
I. 4.5 bya II. 13.8 bya III. ~4 bya IV. ~3 bya V. 2000 mya
93.Match List I with List II.
A. Miller's flask gases B. Miller's main observation C. Similar experiments D. Meteorite analysis
I. amino acids II. sugars/nitrogen bases/pigments/fats III. similar compounds in space IV. CH4, H2, NH3, water vapour
A. Miller's flask gases B. Miller's main observation C. Similar experiments D. Meteorite analysis
I. amino acids II. sugars/nitrogen bases/pigments/fats III. similar compounds in space IV. CH4, H2, NH3, water vapour
94.Match terms.
A. Variation B. Fitness C. Natural selection D. Wallace
I. Reproductive success II. Built-in in populations III. Mechanism of evolution IV. Malay Archipelago
A. Variation B. Fitness C. Natural selection D. Wallace
I. Reproductive success II. Built-in in populations III. Mechanism of evolution IV. Malay Archipelago
95.Match evidence with basis.
A. Paleontological B. Embryological C. Comparative anatomy D. Biochemical
I. similarities in proteins/genes II. fossils in rocks/layers III. embryonic features IV. structural similarities/differences
A. Paleontological B. Embryological C. Comparative anatomy D. Biochemical
I. similarities in proteins/genes II. fossils in rocks/layers III. embryonic features IV. structural similarities/differences
96.Match example/concept with category.
A. Whale-bat-cheetah-human forelimb B. Bougainvillea thorn/Cucurbita tendril C. Humerus-radius-ulna plan D. Homology basis
I. plant homology II. mammalian homology III. divergent evolution IV. forelimb bone pattern
A. Whale-bat-cheetah-human forelimb B. Bougainvillea thorn/Cucurbita tendril C. Humerus-radius-ulna plan D. Homology basis
I. plant homology II. mammalian homology III. divergent evolution IV. forelimb bone pattern
97.Match analogous pair.
A. Wings B. Eyes C. Flippers D. Storage organs
I. octopus/mammal II. butterfly/bird III. sweet potato/potato IV. penguin/dolphin
A. Wings B. Eyes C. Flippers D. Storage organs
I. octopus/mammal II. butterfly/bird III. sweet potato/potato IV. penguin/dolphin
98.Match condition with moth outcome.
A. Pre-industrial trees B. Post-industrial trees C. White moth after soot D. Dark moth on lichen-covered trees
I. white moth favoured II. dark moth favoured III. vulnerable to predators IV. picked out by predators
A. Pre-industrial trees B. Post-industrial trees C. White moth after soot D. Dark moth on lichen-covered trees
I. white moth favoured II. dark moth favoured III. vulnerable to predators IV. picked out by predators
99.Match.
A. Darwin's finches B. Adaptive radiation C. Australian marsupials D. Convergent pair
I. radiating from a point into habitats II. Galapagos birds III. placental wolf/Tasmanian wolf IV. ancestral stock in Australia
A. Darwin's finches B. Adaptive radiation C. Australian marsupials D. Convergent pair
I. radiating from a point into habitats II. Galapagos birds III. placental wolf/Tasmanian wolf IV. ancestral stock in Australia
100.Match List I with List II.
A. Microbes B. Colony A C. Medium change D. Variant B
I. built-in variation II. multiply into millions within hours III. selected survivor IV. changes selective condition
A. Microbes B. Colony A C. Medium change D. Variant B
I. built-in variation II. multiply into millions within hours III. selected survivor IV. changes selective condition
101.Match.
A. Mutation B. Darwinian variation C. Darwin's view D. de Vries' view
I. gradual evolution II. random and directionless III. small and directional IV. saltation
A. Mutation B. Darwinian variation C. Darwin's view D. de Vries' view
I. gradual evolution II. random and directionless III. small and directional IV. saltation
102.Match symbol/expression with meaning.
A. p B. q C. p² D. 2pq E. q²
I. Aa frequency II. A allele frequency III. aa frequency IV. a allele frequency V. AA frequency
A. p B. q C. p² D. 2pq E. q²
I. Aa frequency II. A allele frequency III. aa frequency IV. a allele frequency V. AA frequency
103.Match.
A. Gene migration B. Gene flow C. Genetic drift D. Founder effect
I. repeated migration II. chance allele-frequency change III. founders from drifted population IV. changes old and new population gene frequencies
A. Gene migration B. Gene flow C. Genetic drift D. Founder effect
I. repeated migration II. chance allele-frequency change III. founders from drifted population IV. changes old and new population gene frequencies
104.Match selection type with outcome.
A. Stabilising B. Directional C. Disruptive
I. peripheral values at both ends II. mean value III. non-mean value
A. Stabilising B. Directional C. Disruptive
I. peripheral values at both ends II. mean value III. non-mean value
105.Match event/time.
A. Invertebrates active B. Jawless fish C. Seaweeds/few plants D. First land invaders
I. around 350 mya II. around 320 mya III. plants IV. 500 mya
A. Invertebrates active B. Jawless fish C. Seaweeds/few plants D. First land invaders
I. around 350 mya II. around 320 mya III. plants IV. 500 mya
106.Match.
A. Coelacanth B. Lobefins C. Reptiles D. Ichthyosaurs
I. first amphibians II. thick-shelled eggs III. fish-like reptiles IV. caught in South Africa in 1938
A. Coelacanth B. Lobefins C. Reptiles D. Ichthyosaurs
I. first amphibians II. thick-shelled eggs III. fish-like reptiles IV. caught in South Africa in 1938
107.Match hominid/event with feature/time.
A. Homo habilis B. Homo erectus C. Neanderthal D. Agriculture
I. 900 cc brain II. 650–800 cc brain III. 1400 cc brain IV. 10,000 years ago
A. Homo habilis B. Homo erectus C. Neanderthal D. Agriculture
I. 900 cc brain II. 650–800 cc brain III. 1400 cc brain IV. 10,000 years ago
108.Match item with place.
A. Man-like fossils B. Homo erectus fossil discovery C. Neanderthal range D. Bhimbetka
I. Java II. Near East/Central Asia III. Ethiopia/Tanzania IV. Raisen, Madhya Pradesh
A. Man-like fossils B. Homo erectus fossil discovery C. Neanderthal range D. Bhimbetka
I. Java II. Near East/Central Asia III. Ethiopia/Tanzania IV. Raisen, Madhya Pradesh
109.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Looking at stars is like peeping into the past.
Reason R: Stellar distances are measured in light years and light may start its journey long before reaching us.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Looking at stars is like peeping into the past.
Reason R: Stellar distances are measured in light years and light may start its journey long before reaching us.
Choose the correct option.
110.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Early earth had no atmosphere.
Reason R: Water vapour, methane, carbon dioxide and ammonia were released from molten mass later.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Early earth had no atmosphere.
Reason R: Water vapour, methane, carbon dioxide and ammonia were released from molten mass later.
Choose the correct option.
111.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Spontaneous generation was dismissed.
Reason R: Pasteur showed life arises only from pre-existing life, not from killed yeast in pre-sterilised flasks.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Spontaneous generation was dismissed.
Reason R: Pasteur showed life arises only from pre-existing life, not from killed yeast in pre-sterilised flasks.
Choose the correct option.
112.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Oparin-Haldane hypothesis is linked to chemical evolution.
Reason R: It proposed formation of organic molecules from inorganic constituents under early earth conditions before life.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Oparin-Haldane hypothesis is linked to chemical evolution.
Reason R: It proposed formation of organic molecules from inorganic constituents under early earth conditions before life.
Choose the correct option.
113.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Fossils provide paleontological evidence for evolution.
Reason R: Fossils in different sedimentary layers show life forms varied through time.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Fossils provide paleontological evidence for evolution.
Reason R: Fossils in different sedimentary layers show life forms varied through time.
Choose the correct option.
114.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Haeckel's embryological proposal was not finally accepted as stated.
Reason R: Karl Ernst von Baer noted embryos do not pass through adult stages of other animals.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Haeckel's embryological proposal was not finally accepted as stated.
Reason R: Karl Ernst von Baer noted embryos do not pass through adult stages of other animals.
Choose the correct option.
115.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Homologous organs indicate common ancestry.
Reason R: They are based on divergent evolution of a similar structural plan.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Homologous organs indicate common ancestry.
Reason R: They are based on divergent evolution of a similar structural plan.
Choose the correct option.
116.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Analogous organs do not necessarily indicate common ancestry of the structure.
Reason R: Analogous organs arise by convergent evolution of different structures for similar function.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Analogous organs do not necessarily indicate common ancestry of the structure.
Reason R: Analogous organs arise by convergent evolution of different structures for similar function.
Choose the correct option.
117.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Dark moths survived better after industrialisation.
Reason R: Soot-darkened trunks made dark moths more camouflaged from predators.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Dark moths survived better after industrialisation.
Reason R: Soot-darkened trunks made dark moths more camouflaged from predators.
Choose the correct option.
118.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Antibiotic resistance is an example of evolution by anthropogenic action.
Reason R: Human drug pressure can select resistant organisms in months or years.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Antibiotic resistance is an example of evolution by anthropogenic action.
Reason R: Human drug pressure can select resistant organisms in months or years.
Choose the correct option.
119.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Darwin's finches represent adaptive radiation.
Reason R: Different beak forms evolved from original seed-eating features into different feeding habits.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Darwin's finches represent adaptive radiation.
Reason R: Different beak forms evolved from original seed-eating features into different feeding habits.
Choose the correct option.
120.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Fitness has a genetic basis in evolution.
Reason R: The characteristics selected by nature must be inherited for evolutionary change.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Fitness has a genetic basis in evolution.
Reason R: The characteristics selected by nature must be inherited for evolutionary change.
Choose the correct option.
121.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: de Vries' mutation theory differed from Darwin's gradualism.
Reason R: de Vries considered mutations as random, directionless, sudden and capable of saltation.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: de Vries' mutation theory differed from Darwin's gradualism.
Reason R: de Vries considered mutations as random, directionless, sudden and capable of saltation.
Choose the correct option.
122.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Change in allele frequencies is interpreted as evolution.
Reason R: Disturbance in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium means allele frequencies differ from expected values.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Change in allele frequencies is interpreted as evolution.
Reason R: Disturbance in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium means allele frequencies differ from expected values.
Choose the correct option.
123.Given below are two statements: Assertion A and Reason R.
Assertion A: Modern Homo sapiens are linked to Africa and later spread.
Reason R: Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents; modern Homo sapiens arose during the ice age.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion A: Modern Homo sapiens are linked to Africa and later spread.
Reason R: Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents; modern Homo sapiens arose during the ice age.
Choose the correct option.
124.Figure 6.1 represents Miller's experiment. Which label/content combination would be correct for the reaction chamber?
125.Figure 6.2 shows a family tree of dinosaurs and living modern counterparts such as crocodiles and birds. What evidence type does this figure mainly support?
126.Based on Figure 6.3, which statement is most appropriate?
127.In Figure 6.4, if the tree trunk background is polluted/dark, which moth is expected to be less visible to predators?
128.Figure 6.5 on Darwin's finches mainly illustrates:
129.Figure 6.6 showing Australian marsupials is best linked with:
130.Figure 6.7 comparing Australian marsupials and placental mammals primarily demonstrates:
131.In Figure 6.8, a curve where more individuals acquire peripheral character values at both ends represents:
132.Figure 6.9 relates to plant evolution. Which statement is consistent with the text around it?
133.Using the vertebrate evolutionary account, choose the correct transition.
134.Figure 6.11 compares adult human, baby chimpanzee and adult chimpanzee skulls. The caption emphasizes that:
135.Which chronological/feature table row is correct?
136.Choose the option with the correct sequence only.
137.Select the option containing ONLY analogy examples from the chapter.
138.Which option has all statements correct?
A. Pre-industrial lichens favoured white moths.
B. Industrial soot favoured dark moths.
C. Lichens grow well in polluted areas.
D. No variant is completely wiped out.
A. Pre-industrial lichens favoured white moths.
B. Industrial soot favoured dark moths.
C. Lichens grow well in polluted areas.
D. No variant is completely wiped out.
139.Which option contains only correct Hardy-Weinberg items?
140.Choose the option showing a correct NCERT-compatible order.
141.Which chronological grouping is correct?
142.Select the option that includes only summary-supported ideas.
143.A farmer repeatedly uses the same pesticide and within a few seasons a pest population becomes resistant. Which chapter idea best explains this?
144.A bacterial colony grows on medium X. After a nutrient change, only a small variant group grows rapidly and dominates. Best inference?
145.In a population, observed genotype frequencies deviate from Hardy-Weinberg expected frequencies over generations. Best conclusion from the chapter?
146.A student says sweet potato and potato are homologous because both store food. Correct mentor response?
147.Several species arise from one ancestral stock on an island, each adapted to different habitats. The best term is:
148.A sudden large heritable change produces a new form in one step. Which term/view from the chapter is closest?
149.A fossil fish-like organism has stout fins and is related to the transition toward amphibians. Which NCERT example is closest?
150.A fossil hominid has about 1400 cc brain capacity and evidence of burying the dead. Identify it from the chapter.
Answer Key
12
23
32
42
52
62
72
82
92
101
112
122
134
141
153
163
171
182
192
203
212
222
232
242
252
262
272
282
292
302
311
321
331
341
351
361
371
381
391
401
411
421
431
441
451
461
471
481
491
501
511
521
531
541
551
561
571
581
591
601
611
621
631
641
651
661
671
684
694
704
714
724
734
744
754
764
774
784
794
804
814
824
834
844
854
864
874
884
894
904
911
921
931
941
951
961
971
981
991
1001
1011
1021
1031
1041
1051
1061
1071
1081
1091
1101
1111
1121
1131
1141
1151
1161
1171
1181
1191
1201
1211
1221
1232
1242
1251
1261
1272
1282
1292
1301
1313
1321
1331
1342
1352
1361
1371
1381
1391
1401
1411
1421
1432
1441
1451
1462
1471
1482
1491
1503