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NEET ]1[ Contd...
NEET Biology Class 12 - Reproductive Health Ultra-Hard Question Bank
Instructions:
- Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
- Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
- Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
- Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Consider the following statements regarding reproductive health definition (Q1):
I. Reproductive health simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
II. According to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in physical, emotional,
physiological, and social aspects of reproduction.
III. A society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is
reproductively healthy.
IV. Normal emotional and behavioural interactions among people in all sex-related aspects is a
key parameter of reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Reproductive health simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
II. According to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in physical, emotional,
physiological, and social aspects of reproduction.
III. A society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is
reproductively healthy.
IV. Normal emotional and behavioural interactions among people in all sex-related aspects is a
key parameter of reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q2):
Assertion (A): 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females developed by scientists at CDRI in
Lucknow, India.
Reason (R): Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is a non-governmental research
organization based in Lucknow.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q2):
Assertion (A): 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females developed by scientists at CDRI in
Lucknow, India.
Reason (R): Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is a non-governmental research
organization based in Lucknow.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
3.Consider the following claims regarding the amniocentesis procedure (Q3):
I. It involves taking some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus.
II. It is used to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
III. It tests for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, haemophilia, and sickle-cell anaemia.
IV. It can be legally used to determine the sex of the foetus if the mother requests it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It involves taking some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus.
II. It is used to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
III. It tests for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, haemophilia, and sickle-cell anaemia.
IV. It can be legally used to determine the sex of the foetus if the mother requests it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
4.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q4):
Assertion (A): Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason (R): Sex education provides right information to the young so as to discourage children
from believing in myths and having misconceptions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q4):
Assertion (A): Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason (R): Sex education provides right information to the young so as to discourage children
from believing in myths and having misconceptions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
5.Consider the following statements regarding reproductive health programs in India (Q5):
I. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
a national level.
II. The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in the year 1951.
III. Family planning programmes have been periodically assessed over the past decades.
IV. The improved programmes currently in operation are called 'Reproductive and Child
Health Care (RCH)' programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
a national level.
II. The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in the year 1951.
III. Family planning programmes have been periodically assessed over the past decades.
IV. The improved programmes currently in operation are called 'Reproductive and Child
Health Care (RCH)' programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
6.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q6):
Assertion (A): Overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate
improved reproductive health of the society.
Reason (R): Better post-natal care leads to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q6):
Assertion (A): Overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate
improved reproductive health of the society.
Reason (R): Better post-natal care leads to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
7.Consider the following statements regarding reproductive health definition (Q7):
I. Reproductive health simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
II. According to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in physical, emotional,
physiological, and social aspects of reproduction.
III. A society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is
reproductively healthy.
IV. Normal emotional and behavioural interactions among people in all sex-related aspects is a
key parameter of reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Reproductive health simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
II. According to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in physical, emotional,
physiological, and social aspects of reproduction.
III. A society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is
reproductively healthy.
IV. Normal emotional and behavioural interactions among people in all sex-related aspects is a
key parameter of reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
8.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q8):
Assertion (A): 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females developed by scientists at CDRI in
Lucknow, India.
Reason (R): Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is a non-governmental research
organization based in Lucknow.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q8):
Assertion (A): 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females developed by scientists at CDRI in
Lucknow, India.
Reason (R): Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is a non-governmental research
organization based in Lucknow.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
9.Consider the following claims regarding the amniocentesis procedure (Q9):
I. It involves taking some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus.
II. It is used to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
III. It tests for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, haemophilia, and sickle-cell anaemia.
IV. It can be legally used to determine the sex of the foetus if the mother requests it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It involves taking some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus.
II. It is used to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
III. It tests for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, haemophilia, and sickle-cell anaemia.
IV. It can be legally used to determine the sex of the foetus if the mother requests it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
10.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q10):
Assertion (A): Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason (R): Sex education provides right information to the young so as to discourage children
from believing in myths and having misconceptions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q10):
Assertion (A): Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason (R): Sex education provides right information to the young so as to discourage children
from believing in myths and having misconceptions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
11.Consider the following statements regarding reproductive health programs in India (Q11):
I. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
a national level.
II. The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in the year 1951.
III. Family planning programmes have been periodically assessed over the past decades.
IV. The improved programmes currently in operation are called 'Reproductive and Child
Health Care (RCH)' programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
a national level.
II. The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in the year 1951.
III. Family planning programmes have been periodically assessed over the past decades.
IV. The improved programmes currently in operation are called 'Reproductive and Child
Health Care (RCH)' programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
12.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q12):
Assertion (A): Overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate
improved reproductive health of the society.
Reason (R): Better post-natal care leads to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q12):
Assertion (A): Overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate
improved reproductive health of the society.
Reason (R): Better post-natal care leads to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
13.Consider the following statements regarding reproductive health definition (Q13):
I. Reproductive health simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
II. According to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in physical, emotional,
physiological, and social aspects of reproduction.
III. A society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is
reproductively healthy.
IV. Normal emotional and behavioural interactions among people in all sex-related aspects is a
key parameter of reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Reproductive health simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
II. According to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in physical, emotional,
physiological, and social aspects of reproduction.
III. A society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is
reproductively healthy.
IV. Normal emotional and behavioural interactions among people in all sex-related aspects is a
key parameter of reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
14.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q14):
Assertion (A): 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females developed by scientists at CDRI in
Lucknow, India.
Reason (R): Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is a non-governmental research
organization based in Lucknow.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q14):
Assertion (A): 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females developed by scientists at CDRI in
Lucknow, India.
Reason (R): Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is a non-governmental research
organization based in Lucknow.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
15.Consider the following claims regarding the amniocentesis procedure (Q15):
I. It involves taking some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus.
II. It is used to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
III. It tests for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, haemophilia, and sickle-cell anaemia.
IV. It can be legally used to determine the sex of the foetus if the mother requests it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It involves taking some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus.
II. It is used to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
III. It tests for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, haemophilia, and sickle-cell anaemia.
IV. It can be legally used to determine the sex of the foetus if the mother requests it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
16.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q16):
Assertion (A): Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason (R): Sex education provides right information to the young so as to discourage children
from believing in myths and having misconceptions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q16):
Assertion (A): Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason (R): Sex education provides right information to the young so as to discourage children
from believing in myths and having misconceptions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
17.Consider the following statements regarding reproductive health programs in India (Q17):
I. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
a national level.
II. The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in the year 1951.
III. Family planning programmes have been periodically assessed over the past decades.
IV. The improved programmes currently in operation are called 'Reproductive and Child
Health Care (RCH)' programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
a national level.
II. The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in the year 1951.
III. Family planning programmes have been periodically assessed over the past decades.
IV. The improved programmes currently in operation are called 'Reproductive and Child
Health Care (RCH)' programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
18.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q18):
Assertion (A): Overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate
improved reproductive health of the society.
Reason (R): Better post-natal care leads to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q18):
Assertion (A): Overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate
improved reproductive health of the society.
Reason (R): Better post-natal care leads to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
19.Consider the following statements regarding reproductive health definition (Q19):
I. Reproductive health simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
II. According to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in physical, emotional,
physiological, and social aspects of reproduction.
III. A society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is
reproductively healthy.
IV. Normal emotional and behavioural interactions among people in all sex-related aspects is a
key parameter of reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Reproductive health simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
II. According to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in physical, emotional,
physiological, and social aspects of reproduction.
III. A society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is
reproductively healthy.
IV. Normal emotional and behavioural interactions among people in all sex-related aspects is a
key parameter of reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
20.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q20):
Assertion (A): 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females developed by scientists at CDRI in
Lucknow, India.
Reason (R): Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is a non-governmental research
organization based in Lucknow.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q20):
Assertion (A): 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females developed by scientists at CDRI in
Lucknow, India.
Reason (R): Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is a non-governmental research
organization based in Lucknow.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
21.Consider the following claims regarding the amniocentesis procedure (Q21):
I. It involves taking some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus.
II. It is used to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
III. It tests for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, haemophilia, and sickle-cell anaemia.
IV. It can be legally used to determine the sex of the foetus if the mother requests it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It involves taking some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus.
II. It is used to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
III. It tests for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, haemophilia, and sickle-cell anaemia.
IV. It can be legally used to determine the sex of the foetus if the mother requests it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
22.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q22):
Assertion (A): Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason (R): Sex education provides right information to the young so as to discourage children
from believing in myths and having misconceptions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q22):
Assertion (A): Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason (R): Sex education provides right information to the young so as to discourage children
from believing in myths and having misconceptions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
23.Consider the following statements regarding reproductive health programs in India (Q23):
I. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
a national level.
II. The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in the year 1951.
III. Family planning programmes have been periodically assessed over the past decades.
IV. The improved programmes currently in operation are called 'Reproductive and Child
Health Care (RCH)' programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
a national level.
II. The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in the year 1951.
III. Family planning programmes have been periodically assessed over the past decades.
IV. The improved programmes currently in operation are called 'Reproductive and Child
Health Care (RCH)' programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
24.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q24):
Assertion (A): Overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate
improved reproductive health of the society.
Reason (R): Better post-natal care leads to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q24):
Assertion (A): Overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate
improved reproductive health of the society.
Reason (R): Better post-natal care leads to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
25.Consider the following statements regarding reproductive health definition (Q25):
I. Reproductive health simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
II. According to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in physical, emotional,
physiological, and social aspects of reproduction.
III. A society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is
reproductively healthy.
IV. Normal emotional and behavioural interactions among people in all sex-related aspects is a
key parameter of reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Reproductive health simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
II. According to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in physical, emotional,
physiological, and social aspects of reproduction.
III. A society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is
reproductively healthy.
IV. Normal emotional and behavioural interactions among people in all sex-related aspects is a
key parameter of reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
26.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q26):
Assertion (A): 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females developed by scientists at CDRI in
Lucknow, India.
Reason (R): Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is a non-governmental research
organization based in Lucknow.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q26):
Assertion (A): 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females developed by scientists at CDRI in
Lucknow, India.
Reason (R): Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is a non-governmental research
organization based in Lucknow.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
27.Consider the following claims regarding the amniocentesis procedure (Q27):
I. It involves taking some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus.
II. It is used to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
III. It tests for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, haemophilia, and sickle-cell anaemia.
IV. It can be legally used to determine the sex of the foetus if the mother requests it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It involves taking some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus.
II. It is used to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
III. It tests for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, haemophilia, and sickle-cell anaemia.
IV. It can be legally used to determine the sex of the foetus if the mother requests it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
28.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q28):
Assertion (A): Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason (R): Sex education provides right information to the young so as to discourage children
from believing in myths and having misconceptions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q28):
Assertion (A): Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason (R): Sex education provides right information to the young so as to discourage children
from believing in myths and having misconceptions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
29.Consider the following statements regarding reproductive health programs in India (Q29):
I. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
a national level.
II. The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in the year 1951.
III. Family planning programmes have been periodically assessed over the past decades.
IV. The improved programmes currently in operation are called 'Reproductive and Child
Health Care (RCH)' programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
a national level.
II. The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in the year 1951.
III. Family planning programmes have been periodically assessed over the past decades.
IV. The improved programmes currently in operation are called 'Reproductive and Child
Health Care (RCH)' programmes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
30.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q30):
Assertion (A): Overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate
improved reproductive health of the society.
Reason (R): Better post-natal care leads to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q30):
Assertion (A): Overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate
improved reproductive health of the society.
Reason (R): Better post-natal care leads to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
31.Consider the following statements regarding the global population growth (Q31):
I. The world population was around 2 billion (2000 million) in the year 1900.
II. The world population rocketed to about 6 billion by the year 2000.
III. In the year 2011, the world population reached 7.2 billion.
IV. The global population growth rate has been steadily declining since 1900 due to RCH.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. The world population was around 2 billion (2000 million) in the year 1900.
II. The world population rocketed to about 6 billion by the year 2000.
III. In the year 2011, the world population reached 7.2 billion.
IV. The global population growth rate has been steadily declining since 1900 due to RCH.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
32.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q32):
Assertion (A): Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 21 years and males to 18
years is a measure to tackle population growth.
Reason (R): Motivating smaller families by using various contraceptive methods is the most
important step to check population growth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q32):
Assertion (A): Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 21 years and males to 18
years is a measure to tackle population growth.
Reason (R): Motivating smaller families by using various contraceptive methods is the most
important step to check population growth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
33.Consider the following attributes of an ideal contraceptive according to NCERT (Q33):
I. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
II. It should be highly effective and completely irreversible.
III. It should have no or least side-effects.
IV. It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire, or act of the user.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
II. It should be highly effective and completely irreversible.
III. It should have no or least side-effects.
IV. It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire, or act of the user.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
34.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q34):
Assertion (A): Better living conditions and increased health facilities had an explosive impact on
population growth.
Reason (R): A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality
rate (IMR) are probable reasons for population explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q34):
Assertion (A): Better living conditions and increased health facilities had an explosive impact on
population growth.
Reason (R): A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality
rate (IMR) are probable reasons for population explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
35.Consider the following claims regarding India's population trends (Q35):
I. Our population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
II. India's population reached close to the billion mark by the year 2000.
III. In May 2011, India's population crossed 1.2 billion.
IV. According to the 2011 census report, the growth rate was less than 2 per cent (i.e.
20/1000/year).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Our population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
II. India's population reached close to the billion mark by the year 2000.
III. In May 2011, India's population crossed 1.2 billion.
IV. According to the 2011 census report, the growth rate was less than 2 per cent (i.e.
20/1000/year).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
36.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q36):
Assertion (A): Many urban, working, young couples have adopted a 'two child norm' as a
personal choice.
Reason (R): Slogans like 'Hum Do Hamare Do' motivate smaller families in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q36):
Assertion (A): Many urban, working, young couples have adopted a 'two child norm' as a
personal choice.
Reason (R): Slogans like 'Hum Do Hamare Do' motivate smaller families in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
37.Consider the following statements regarding the global population growth (Q37):
I. The world population was around 2 billion (2000 million) in the year 1900.
II. The world population rocketed to about 6 billion by the year 2000.
III. In the year 2011, the world population reached 7.2 billion.
IV. The global population growth rate has been steadily declining since 1900 due to RCH.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. The world population was around 2 billion (2000 million) in the year 1900.
II. The world population rocketed to about 6 billion by the year 2000.
III. In the year 2011, the world population reached 7.2 billion.
IV. The global population growth rate has been steadily declining since 1900 due to RCH.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
38.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q38):
Assertion (A): Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 21 years and males to 18
years is a measure to tackle population growth.
Reason (R): Motivating smaller families by using various contraceptive methods is the most
important step to check population growth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q38):
Assertion (A): Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 21 years and males to 18
years is a measure to tackle population growth.
Reason (R): Motivating smaller families by using various contraceptive methods is the most
important step to check population growth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
39.Consider the following attributes of an ideal contraceptive according to NCERT (Q39):
I. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
II. It should be highly effective and completely irreversible.
III. It should have no or least side-effects.
IV. It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire, or act of the user.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
II. It should be highly effective and completely irreversible.
III. It should have no or least side-effects.
IV. It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire, or act of the user.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
40.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q40):
Assertion (A): Better living conditions and increased health facilities had an explosive impact on
population growth.
Reason (R): A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality
rate (IMR) are probable reasons for population explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q40):
Assertion (A): Better living conditions and increased health facilities had an explosive impact on
population growth.
Reason (R): A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality
rate (IMR) are probable reasons for population explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
41.Consider the following claims regarding India's population trends (Q41):
I. Our population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
II. India's population reached close to the billion mark by the year 2000.
III. In May 2011, India's population crossed 1.2 billion.
IV. According to the 2011 census report, the growth rate was less than 2 per cent (i.e.
20/1000/year).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Our population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
II. India's population reached close to the billion mark by the year 2000.
III. In May 2011, India's population crossed 1.2 billion.
IV. According to the 2011 census report, the growth rate was less than 2 per cent (i.e.
20/1000/year).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
42.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q42):
Assertion (A): Many urban, working, young couples have adopted a 'two child norm' as a
personal choice.
Reason (R): Slogans like 'Hum Do Hamare Do' motivate smaller families in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q42):
Assertion (A): Many urban, working, young couples have adopted a 'two child norm' as a
personal choice.
Reason (R): Slogans like 'Hum Do Hamare Do' motivate smaller families in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
43.Consider the following statements regarding the global population growth (Q43):
I. The world population was around 2 billion (2000 million) in the year 1900.
II. The world population rocketed to about 6 billion by the year 2000.
III. In the year 2011, the world population reached 7.2 billion.
IV. The global population growth rate has been steadily declining since 1900 due to RCH.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. The world population was around 2 billion (2000 million) in the year 1900.
II. The world population rocketed to about 6 billion by the year 2000.
III. In the year 2011, the world population reached 7.2 billion.
IV. The global population growth rate has been steadily declining since 1900 due to RCH.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
44.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q44):
Assertion (A): Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 21 years and males to 18
years is a measure to tackle population growth.
Reason (R): Motivating smaller families by using various contraceptive methods is the most
important step to check population growth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q44):
Assertion (A): Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 21 years and males to 18
years is a measure to tackle population growth.
Reason (R): Motivating smaller families by using various contraceptive methods is the most
important step to check population growth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
45.Consider the following attributes of an ideal contraceptive according to NCERT (Q45):
I. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
II. It should be highly effective and completely irreversible.
III. It should have no or least side-effects.
IV. It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire, or act of the user.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
II. It should be highly effective and completely irreversible.
III. It should have no or least side-effects.
IV. It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire, or act of the user.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
46.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q46):
Assertion (A): Better living conditions and increased health facilities had an explosive impact on
population growth.
Reason (R): A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality
rate (IMR) are probable reasons for population explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q46):
Assertion (A): Better living conditions and increased health facilities had an explosive impact on
population growth.
Reason (R): A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality
rate (IMR) are probable reasons for population explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
47.Consider the following claims regarding India's population trends (Q47):
I. Our population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
II. India's population reached close to the billion mark by the year 2000.
III. In May 2011, India's population crossed 1.2 billion.
IV. According to the 2011 census report, the growth rate was less than 2 per cent (i.e.
20/1000/year).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Our population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
II. India's population reached close to the billion mark by the year 2000.
III. In May 2011, India's population crossed 1.2 billion.
IV. According to the 2011 census report, the growth rate was less than 2 per cent (i.e.
20/1000/year).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
48.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q48):
Assertion (A): Many urban, working, young couples have adopted a 'two child norm' as a
personal choice.
Reason (R): Slogans like 'Hum Do Hamare Do' motivate smaller families in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q48):
Assertion (A): Many urban, working, young couples have adopted a 'two child norm' as a
personal choice.
Reason (R): Slogans like 'Hum Do Hamare Do' motivate smaller families in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
49.Consider the following statements regarding the global population growth (Q49):
I. The world population was around 2 billion (2000 million) in the year 1900.
II. The world population rocketed to about 6 billion by the year 2000.
III. In the year 2011, the world population reached 7.2 billion.
IV. The global population growth rate has been steadily declining since 1900 due to RCH.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. The world population was around 2 billion (2000 million) in the year 1900.
II. The world population rocketed to about 6 billion by the year 2000.
III. In the year 2011, the world population reached 7.2 billion.
IV. The global population growth rate has been steadily declining since 1900 due to RCH.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
50.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q50):
Assertion (A): Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 21 years and males to 18
years is a measure to tackle population growth.
Reason (R): Motivating smaller families by using various contraceptive methods is the most
important step to check population growth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q50):
Assertion (A): Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 21 years and males to 18
years is a measure to tackle population growth.
Reason (R): Motivating smaller families by using various contraceptive methods is the most
important step to check population growth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
51.Consider the following attributes of an ideal contraceptive according to NCERT (Q51):
I. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
II. It should be highly effective and completely irreversible.
III. It should have no or least side-effects.
IV. It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire, or act of the user.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
II. It should be highly effective and completely irreversible.
III. It should have no or least side-effects.
IV. It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire, or act of the user.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
52.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q52):
Assertion (A): Better living conditions and increased health facilities had an explosive impact on
population growth.
Reason (R): A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality
rate (IMR) are probable reasons for population explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q52):
Assertion (A): Better living conditions and increased health facilities had an explosive impact on
population growth.
Reason (R): A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality
rate (IMR) are probable reasons for population explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
53.Consider the following claims regarding India's population trends (Q53):
I. Our population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
II. India's population reached close to the billion mark by the year 2000.
III. In May 2011, India's population crossed 1.2 billion.
IV. According to the 2011 census report, the growth rate was less than 2 per cent (i.e.
20/1000/year).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Our population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
II. India's population reached close to the billion mark by the year 2000.
III. In May 2011, India's population crossed 1.2 billion.
IV. According to the 2011 census report, the growth rate was less than 2 per cent (i.e.
20/1000/year).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
54.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q54):
Assertion (A): Many urban, working, young couples have adopted a 'two child norm' as a
personal choice.
Reason (R): Slogans like 'Hum Do Hamare Do' motivate smaller families in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q54):
Assertion (A): Many urban, working, young couples have adopted a 'two child norm' as a
personal choice.
Reason (R): Slogans like 'Hum Do Hamare Do' motivate smaller families in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
55.Consider the following statements regarding the global population growth (Q55):
I. The world population was around 2 billion (2000 million) in the year 1900.
II. The world population rocketed to about 6 billion by the year 2000.
III. In the year 2011, the world population reached 7.2 billion.
IV. The global population growth rate has been steadily declining since 1900 due to RCH.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. The world population was around 2 billion (2000 million) in the year 1900.
II. The world population rocketed to about 6 billion by the year 2000.
III. In the year 2011, the world population reached 7.2 billion.
IV. The global population growth rate has been steadily declining since 1900 due to RCH.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
56.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q56):
Assertion (A): Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 21 years and males to 18
years is a measure to tackle population growth.
Reason (R): Motivating smaller families by using various contraceptive methods is the most
important step to check population growth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q56):
Assertion (A): Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 21 years and males to 18
years is a measure to tackle population growth.
Reason (R): Motivating smaller families by using various contraceptive methods is the most
important step to check population growth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
57.Consider the following attributes of an ideal contraceptive according to NCERT (Q57):
I. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
II. It should be highly effective and completely irreversible.
III. It should have no or least side-effects.
IV. It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire, or act of the user.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
II. It should be highly effective and completely irreversible.
III. It should have no or least side-effects.
IV. It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire, or act of the user.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
58.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q58):
Assertion (A): Better living conditions and increased health facilities had an explosive impact on
population growth.
Reason (R): A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality
rate (IMR) are probable reasons for population explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q58):
Assertion (A): Better living conditions and increased health facilities had an explosive impact on
population growth.
Reason (R): A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality
rate (IMR) are probable reasons for population explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
59.Consider the following claims regarding India's population trends (Q59):
I. Our population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
II. India's population reached close to the billion mark by the year 2000.
III. In May 2011, India's population crossed 1.2 billion.
IV. According to the 2011 census report, the growth rate was less than 2 per cent (i.e.
20/1000/year).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Our population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
II. India's population reached close to the billion mark by the year 2000.
III. In May 2011, India's population crossed 1.2 billion.
IV. According to the 2011 census report, the growth rate was less than 2 per cent (i.e.
20/1000/year).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
60.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q60):
Assertion (A): Many urban, working, young couples have adopted a 'two child norm' as a
personal choice.
Reason (R): Slogans like 'Hum Do Hamare Do' motivate smaller families in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q60):
Assertion (A): Many urban, working, young couples have adopted a 'two child norm' as a
personal choice.
Reason (R): Slogans like 'Hum Do Hamare Do' motivate smaller families in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
61.Consider the following statements regarding natural contraceptive methods (Q61):
I. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
II. Periodic abstinence is a method where coitus is avoided from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle.
III. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis before
ejaculation to avoid insemination.
IV. Natural methods have high chances of failure, but their side effects are almost nil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
II. Periodic abstinence is a method where coitus is avoided from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle.
III. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis before
ejaculation to avoid insemination.
IV. Natural methods have high chances of failure, but their side effects are almost nil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
62.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q62):
Assertion (A): Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason (R): Condoms provide the additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting
STIs and AIDS.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q62):
Assertion (A): Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason (R): Condoms provide the additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting
STIs and AIDS.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
63.Consider the following claims regarding barrier methods (Q63):
I. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath.
II. They cover the penis in the male or the vagina and cervix in the female.
III. Both male and female condoms are reusable and can be self-inserted.
IV. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath.
II. They cover the penis in the male or the vagina and cervix in the female.
III. Both male and female condoms are reusable and can be self-inserted.
IV. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
64.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q64):
Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barriers made of rubber inserted into
the female reproductive tract.
Reason (R): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable barriers that block the entry
of sperms through the cervix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q64):
Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barriers made of rubber inserted into
the female reproductive tract.
Reason (R): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable barriers that block the entry
of sperms through the cervix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
65.Consider the following statements regarding the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM)
(Q65):
I. It is based on the fact that ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
II. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
III. It has been reported to be effective up to a maximum period of twelve months.
IV. It utilizes no medicines or devices, resulting in low side effects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(Q65):
I. It is based on the fact that ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
II. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
III. It has been reported to be effective up to a maximum period of twelve months.
IV. It utilizes no medicines or devices, resulting in low side effects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
66.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q66):
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are used along with diaphragms, cervical
caps, and vaults.
Reason (R): Chemical spermicides increase the mechanical barrier capacity of cervical caps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q66):
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are used along with diaphragms, cervical
caps, and vaults.
Reason (R): Chemical spermicides increase the mechanical barrier capacity of cervical caps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
67.Consider the following statements regarding natural contraceptive methods (Q67):
I. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
II. Periodic abstinence is a method where coitus is avoided from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle.
III. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis before
ejaculation to avoid insemination.
IV. Natural methods have high chances of failure, but their side effects are almost nil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
II. Periodic abstinence is a method where coitus is avoided from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle.
III. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis before
ejaculation to avoid insemination.
IV. Natural methods have high chances of failure, but their side effects are almost nil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
68.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q68):
Assertion (A): Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason (R): Condoms provide the additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting
STIs and AIDS.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q68):
Assertion (A): Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason (R): Condoms provide the additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting
STIs and AIDS.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
69.Consider the following claims regarding barrier methods (Q69):
I. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath.
II. They cover the penis in the male or the vagina and cervix in the female.
III. Both male and female condoms are reusable and can be self-inserted.
IV. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath.
II. They cover the penis in the male or the vagina and cervix in the female.
III. Both male and female condoms are reusable and can be self-inserted.
IV. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
70.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q70):
Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barriers made of rubber inserted into
the female reproductive tract.
Reason (R): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable barriers that block the entry
of sperms through the cervix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q70):
Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barriers made of rubber inserted into
the female reproductive tract.
Reason (R): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable barriers that block the entry
of sperms through the cervix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
71.Consider the following statements regarding the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM)
(Q71):
I. It is based on the fact that ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
II. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
III. It has been reported to be effective up to a maximum period of twelve months.
IV. It utilizes no medicines or devices, resulting in low side effects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(Q71):
I. It is based on the fact that ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
II. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
III. It has been reported to be effective up to a maximum period of twelve months.
IV. It utilizes no medicines or devices, resulting in low side effects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
72.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q72):
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are used along with diaphragms, cervical
caps, and vaults.
Reason (R): Chemical spermicides increase the mechanical barrier capacity of cervical caps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q72):
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are used along with diaphragms, cervical
caps, and vaults.
Reason (R): Chemical spermicides increase the mechanical barrier capacity of cervical caps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
73.Consider the following statements regarding natural contraceptive methods (Q73):
I. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
II. Periodic abstinence is a method where coitus is avoided from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle.
III. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis before
ejaculation to avoid insemination.
IV. Natural methods have high chances of failure, but their side effects are almost nil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
II. Periodic abstinence is a method where coitus is avoided from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle.
III. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis before
ejaculation to avoid insemination.
IV. Natural methods have high chances of failure, but their side effects are almost nil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
74.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q74):
Assertion (A): Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason (R): Condoms provide the additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting
STIs and AIDS.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q74):
Assertion (A): Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason (R): Condoms provide the additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting
STIs and AIDS.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
75.Consider the following claims regarding barrier methods (Q75):
I. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath.
II. They cover the penis in the male or the vagina and cervix in the female.
III. Both male and female condoms are reusable and can be self-inserted.
IV. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath.
II. They cover the penis in the male or the vagina and cervix in the female.
III. Both male and female condoms are reusable and can be self-inserted.
IV. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
76.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q76):
Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barriers made of rubber inserted into
the female reproductive tract.
Reason (R): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable barriers that block the entry
of sperms through the cervix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q76):
Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barriers made of rubber inserted into
the female reproductive tract.
Reason (R): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable barriers that block the entry
of sperms through the cervix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
77.Consider the following statements regarding the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM)
(Q77):
I. It is based on the fact that ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
II. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
III. It has been reported to be effective up to a maximum period of twelve months.
IV. It utilizes no medicines or devices, resulting in low side effects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(Q77):
I. It is based on the fact that ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
II. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
III. It has been reported to be effective up to a maximum period of twelve months.
IV. It utilizes no medicines or devices, resulting in low side effects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
78.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q78):
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are used along with diaphragms, cervical
caps, and vaults.
Reason (R): Chemical spermicides increase the mechanical barrier capacity of cervical caps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q78):
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are used along with diaphragms, cervical
caps, and vaults.
Reason (R): Chemical spermicides increase the mechanical barrier capacity of cervical caps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
79.Consider the following statements regarding natural contraceptive methods (Q79):
I. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
II. Periodic abstinence is a method where coitus is avoided from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle.
III. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis before
ejaculation to avoid insemination.
IV. Natural methods have high chances of failure, but their side effects are almost nil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
II. Periodic abstinence is a method where coitus is avoided from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle.
III. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis before
ejaculation to avoid insemination.
IV. Natural methods have high chances of failure, but their side effects are almost nil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
80.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q80):
Assertion (A): Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason (R): Condoms provide the additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting
STIs and AIDS.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q80):
Assertion (A): Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason (R): Condoms provide the additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting
STIs and AIDS.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
81.Consider the following claims regarding barrier methods (Q81):
I. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath.
II. They cover the penis in the male or the vagina and cervix in the female.
III. Both male and female condoms are reusable and can be self-inserted.
IV. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath.
II. They cover the penis in the male or the vagina and cervix in the female.
III. Both male and female condoms are reusable and can be self-inserted.
IV. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
82.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q82):
Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barriers made of rubber inserted into
the female reproductive tract.
Reason (R): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable barriers that block the entry
of sperms through the cervix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q82):
Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barriers made of rubber inserted into
the female reproductive tract.
Reason (R): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable barriers that block the entry
of sperms through the cervix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
83.Consider the following statements regarding the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM)
(Q83):
I. It is based on the fact that ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
II. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
III. It has been reported to be effective up to a maximum period of twelve months.
IV. It utilizes no medicines or devices, resulting in low side effects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(Q83):
I. It is based on the fact that ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
II. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
III. It has been reported to be effective up to a maximum period of twelve months.
IV. It utilizes no medicines or devices, resulting in low side effects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
84.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q84):
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are used along with diaphragms, cervical
caps, and vaults.
Reason (R): Chemical spermicides increase the mechanical barrier capacity of cervical caps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q84):
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are used along with diaphragms, cervical
caps, and vaults.
Reason (R): Chemical spermicides increase the mechanical barrier capacity of cervical caps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
85.Consider the following statements regarding natural contraceptive methods (Q85):
I. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
II. Periodic abstinence is a method where coitus is avoided from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle.
III. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis before
ejaculation to avoid insemination.
IV. Natural methods have high chances of failure, but their side effects are almost nil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
II. Periodic abstinence is a method where coitus is avoided from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle.
III. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis before
ejaculation to avoid insemination.
IV. Natural methods have high chances of failure, but their side effects are almost nil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
86.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q86):
Assertion (A): Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason (R): Condoms provide the additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting
STIs and AIDS.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q86):
Assertion (A): Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason (R): Condoms provide the additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting
STIs and AIDS.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
87.Consider the following claims regarding barrier methods (Q87):
I. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath.
II. They cover the penis in the male or the vagina and cervix in the female.
III. Both male and female condoms are reusable and can be self-inserted.
IV. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath.
II. They cover the penis in the male or the vagina and cervix in the female.
III. Both male and female condoms are reusable and can be self-inserted.
IV. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
88.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q88):
Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barriers made of rubber inserted into
the female reproductive tract.
Reason (R): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable barriers that block the entry
of sperms through the cervix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q88):
Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barriers made of rubber inserted into
the female reproductive tract.
Reason (R): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable barriers that block the entry
of sperms through the cervix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
89.Consider the following statements regarding the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM)
(Q89):
I. It is based on the fact that ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
II. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
III. It has been reported to be effective up to a maximum period of twelve months.
IV. It utilizes no medicines or devices, resulting in low side effects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(Q89):
I. It is based on the fact that ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
II. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
III. It has been reported to be effective up to a maximum period of twelve months.
IV. It utilizes no medicines or devices, resulting in low side effects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
90.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q90):
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are used along with diaphragms, cervical
caps, and vaults.
Reason (R): Chemical spermicides increase the mechanical barrier capacity of cervical caps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q90):
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are used along with diaphragms, cervical
caps, and vaults.
Reason (R): Chemical spermicides increase the mechanical barrier capacity of cervical caps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
91.Consider the following statements regarding IUDs (Q91):
I. These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.
II. They are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
III. They can be easily self-inserted by the user at home.
IV. IUDs are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.
II. They are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
III. They can be easily self-inserted by the user at home.
IV. IUDs are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
92.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q92):
Assertion (A): Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD that releases copper ions to suppress sperm
motility.
Reason (R): Non-medicated IUDs act by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q92):
Assertion (A): Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD that releases copper ions to suppress sperm
motility.
Reason (R): Non-medicated IUDs act by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
93.Consider the following statements regarding IUD mechanisms (Q93):
I. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
II. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
III. The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
IV. The hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
II. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
III. The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
IV. The hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
94.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q94):
Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Reason (R): IUDs are the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q94):
Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Reason (R): IUDs are the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
95.Consider the following matchings of IUD categories and examples (Q95):
I. Non-medicated IUDs: Lippes loop
II. Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
III. Hormone releasing IUDs: Progestasert, LNG-20
IV. Non-medicated IUDs: Multiload 375, Lippes loop
Which of the matchings given above are correct?
I. Non-medicated IUDs: Lippes loop
II. Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
III. Hormone releasing IUDs: Progestasert, LNG-20
IV. Non-medicated IUDs: Multiload 375, Lippes loop
Which of the matchings given above are correct?
96.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q96):
Assertion (A): Progestasert and LNG-20 prevent conception by making the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason (R): Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q96):
Assertion (A): Progestasert and LNG-20 prevent conception by making the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason (R): Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
97.Consider the following statements regarding IUDs (Q97):
I. These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.
II. They are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
III. They can be easily self-inserted by the user at home.
IV. IUDs are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.
II. They are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
III. They can be easily self-inserted by the user at home.
IV. IUDs are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
98.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (Q98):
Assertion (A): Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD that releases copper ions to suppress sperm
motility.
Reason (R): Non-medicated IUDs act by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R) (Q98):
Assertion (A): Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD that releases copper ions to suppress sperm
motility.
Reason (R): Non-medicated IUDs act by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
99.Consider the following statements regarding IUD mechanisms (Q99):
I. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
II. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
III. The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
IV. The hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
II. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
III. The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
IV. The hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
100.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q100):
Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Reason (R): IUDs are the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q100):
Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Reason (R): IUDs are the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
101.Consider the following matchings of IUD categories and examples (Q101):
I. Non-medicated IUDs: Lippes loop
II. Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
III. Hormone releasing IUDs: Progestasert, LNG-20
IV. Non-medicated IUDs: Multiload 375, Lippes loop
Which of the matchings given above are correct?
I. Non-medicated IUDs: Lippes loop
II. Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
III. Hormone releasing IUDs: Progestasert, LNG-20
IV. Non-medicated IUDs: Multiload 375, Lippes loop
Which of the matchings given above are correct?
102.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q102):
Assertion (A): Progestasert and LNG-20 prevent conception by making the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason (R): Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q102):
Assertion (A): Progestasert and LNG-20 prevent conception by making the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason (R): Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
103.Consider the following statements regarding IUDs (Q103):
I. These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.
II. They are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
III. They can be easily self-inserted by the user at home.
IV. IUDs are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.
II. They are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
III. They can be easily self-inserted by the user at home.
IV. IUDs are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
104.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q104):
Assertion (A): Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD that releases copper ions to suppress sperm
motility.
Reason (R): Non-medicated IUDs act by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q104):
Assertion (A): Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD that releases copper ions to suppress sperm
motility.
Reason (R): Non-medicated IUDs act by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
105.Consider the following statements regarding IUD mechanisms (Q105):
I. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
II. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
III. The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
IV. The hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
II. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
III. The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
IV. The hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
106.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q106):
Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Reason (R): IUDs are the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q106):
Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Reason (R): IUDs are the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
107.Consider the following matchings of IUD categories and examples (Q107):
I. Non-medicated IUDs: Lippes loop
II. Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
III. Hormone releasing IUDs: Progestasert, LNG-20
IV. Non-medicated IUDs: Multiload 375, Lippes loop
Which of the matchings given above are correct?
I. Non-medicated IUDs: Lippes loop
II. Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
III. Hormone releasing IUDs: Progestasert, LNG-20
IV. Non-medicated IUDs: Multiload 375, Lippes loop
Which of the matchings given above are correct?
108.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q108):
Assertion (A): Progestasert and LNG-20 prevent conception by making the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason (R): Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q108):
Assertion (A): Progestasert and LNG-20 prevent conception by making the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason (R): Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
109.Consider the following statements regarding IUDs (Q109):
I. These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.
II. They are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
III. They can be easily self-inserted by the user at home.
IV. IUDs are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.
II. They are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
III. They can be easily self-inserted by the user at home.
IV. IUDs are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
110.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q110):
Assertion (A): Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD that releases copper ions to suppress sperm
motility.
Reason (R): Non-medicated IUDs act by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q110):
Assertion (A): Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD that releases copper ions to suppress sperm
motility.
Reason (R): Non-medicated IUDs act by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
111.Consider the following statements regarding IUD mechanisms (Q111):
I. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
II. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
III. The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
IV. The hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
II. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
III. The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
IV. The hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
112.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q112):
Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Reason (R): IUDs are the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q112):
Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Reason (R): IUDs are the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
113.Consider the following matchings of IUD categories and examples (Q113):
I. Non-medicated IUDs: Lippes loop
II. Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
III. Hormone releasing IUDs: Progestasert, LNG-20
IV. Non-medicated IUDs: Multiload 375, Lippes loop
Which of the matchings given above are correct?
I. Non-medicated IUDs: Lippes loop
II. Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
III. Hormone releasing IUDs: Progestasert, LNG-20
IV. Non-medicated IUDs: Multiload 375, Lippes loop
Which of the matchings given above are correct?
114.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q114):
Assertion (A): Progestasert and LNG-20 prevent conception by making the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason (R): Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q114):
Assertion (A): Progestasert and LNG-20 prevent conception by making the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason (R): Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
115.Consider the following statements regarding IUDs (Q115):
I. These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.
II. They are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
III. They can be easily self-inserted by the user at home.
IV. IUDs are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.
II. They are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
III. They can be easily self-inserted by the user at home.
IV. IUDs are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
116.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q116):
Assertion (A): Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD that releases copper ions to suppress sperm
motility.
Reason (R): Non-medicated IUDs act by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q116):
Assertion (A): Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD that releases copper ions to suppress sperm
motility.
Reason (R): Non-medicated IUDs act by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
117.Consider the following statements regarding IUD mechanisms (Q117):
I. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
II. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
III. The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
IV. The hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
II. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
III. The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
IV. The hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
118.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q118):
Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Reason (R): IUDs are the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q118):
Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Reason (R): IUDs are the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
119.Consider the following matchings of IUD categories and examples (Q119):
I. Non-medicated IUDs: Lippes loop
II. Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
III. Hormone releasing IUDs: Progestasert, LNG-20
IV. Non-medicated IUDs: Multiload 375, Lippes loop
Which of the matchings given above are correct?
I. Non-medicated IUDs: Lippes loop
II. Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
III. Hormone releasing IUDs: Progestasert, LNG-20
IV. Non-medicated IUDs: Multiload 375, Lippes loop
Which of the matchings given above are correct?
120.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q120):
Assertion (A): Progestasert and LNG-20 prevent conception by making the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason (R): Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q120):
Assertion (A): Progestasert and LNG-20 prevent conception by making the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason (R): Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
121.Consider the following statements regarding oral contraceptive pills (Q121):
I. They contain small doses of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations.
II. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days.
III. Administration should start preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
IV. After a gap of 7 days during which menstruation occurs, the pattern is repeated.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. They contain small doses of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations.
II. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days.
III. Administration should start preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
IV. After a gap of 7 days during which menstruation occurs, the pattern is repeated.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
122.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q122):
Assertion (A): Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are designed to prevent ovulation if taken within 24
hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q122):
Assertion (A): Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are designed to prevent ovulation if taken within 24
hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
123.Consider the following statements regarding implants and injections (Q123):
I. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used as injections or implants.
II. Implants are placed under the skin of females.
III. Their mode of action is completely different from that of oral pills.
IV. Their effective periods are much longer than oral pills.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used as injections or implants.
II. Implants are placed under the skin of females.
III. Their mode of action is completely different from that of oral pills.
IV. Their effective periods are much longer than oral pills.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
124.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q124):
Assertion (A): Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
Reason (R): Pills alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q124):
Assertion (A): Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
Reason (R): Pills alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
125.Consider the following statements regarding the contraceptive pill 'Saheli' (Q125):
I. It is a new oral contraceptive for females containing a steroidal preparation.
II. It is a 'once a week' pill.
III. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
IV. It was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It is a new oral contraceptive for females containing a steroidal preparation.
II. It is a 'once a week' pill.
III. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
IV. It was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
126.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q126):
Assertion (A): Emergency contraceptives can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are highly effective when administered within 72 hours
of coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q126):
Assertion (A): Emergency contraceptives can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are highly effective when administered within 72 hours
of coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
127.Consider the following statements regarding oral contraceptive pills (Q127):
I. They contain small doses of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations.
II. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days.
III. Administration should start preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
IV. After a gap of 7 days during which menstruation occurs, the pattern is repeated.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. They contain small doses of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations.
II. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days.
III. Administration should start preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
IV. After a gap of 7 days during which menstruation occurs, the pattern is repeated.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
128.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q128):
Assertion (A): Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are designed to prevent ovulation if taken within 24
hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q128):
Assertion (A): Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are designed to prevent ovulation if taken within 24
hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
129.Consider the following statements regarding implants and injections (Q129):
I. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used as injections or implants.
II. Implants are placed under the skin of females.
III. Their mode of action is completely different from that of oral pills.
IV. Their effective periods are much longer than oral pills.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used as injections or implants.
II. Implants are placed under the skin of females.
III. Their mode of action is completely different from that of oral pills.
IV. Their effective periods are much longer than oral pills.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
130.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q130):
Assertion (A): Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
Reason (R): Pills alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q130):
Assertion (A): Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
Reason (R): Pills alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
131.Consider the following statements regarding the contraceptive pill 'Saheli' (Q131):
I. It is a new oral contraceptive for females containing a steroidal preparation.
II. It is a 'once a week' pill.
III. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
IV. It was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It is a new oral contraceptive for females containing a steroidal preparation.
II. It is a 'once a week' pill.
III. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
IV. It was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
132.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q132):
Assertion (A): Emergency contraceptives can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are highly effective when administered within 72 hours
of coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q132):
Assertion (A): Emergency contraceptives can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are highly effective when administered within 72 hours
of coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
133.Consider the following statements regarding oral contraceptive pills (Q133):
I. They contain small doses of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations.
II. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days.
III. Administration should start preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
IV. After a gap of 7 days during which menstruation occurs, the pattern is repeated.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. They contain small doses of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations.
II. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days.
III. Administration should start preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
IV. After a gap of 7 days during which menstruation occurs, the pattern is repeated.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
134.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q134):
Assertion (A): Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are designed to prevent ovulation if taken within 24
hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q134):
Assertion (A): Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are designed to prevent ovulation if taken within 24
hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
135.Consider the following statements regarding implants and injections (Q135):
I. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used as injections or implants.
II. Implants are placed under the skin of females.
III. Their mode of action is completely different from that of oral pills.
IV. Their effective periods are much longer than oral pills.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used as injections or implants.
II. Implants are placed under the skin of females.
III. Their mode of action is completely different from that of oral pills.
IV. Their effective periods are much longer than oral pills.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
136.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q136):
Assertion (A): Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
Reason (R): Pills alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q136):
Assertion (A): Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
Reason (R): Pills alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
137.Consider the following statements regarding the contraceptive pill 'Saheli' (Q137):
I. It is a new oral contraceptive for females containing a steroidal preparation.
II. It is a 'once a week' pill.
III. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
IV. It was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It is a new oral contraceptive for females containing a steroidal preparation.
II. It is a 'once a week' pill.
III. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
IV. It was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
138.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q138):
Assertion (A): Emergency contraceptives can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are highly effective when administered within 72 hours
of coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q138):
Assertion (A): Emergency contraceptives can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are highly effective when administered within 72 hours
of coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
139.Consider the following statements regarding oral contraceptive pills (Q139):
I. They contain small doses of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations.
II. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days.
III. Administration should start preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
IV. After a gap of 7 days during which menstruation occurs, the pattern is repeated.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. They contain small doses of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations.
II. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days.
III. Administration should start preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
IV. After a gap of 7 days during which menstruation occurs, the pattern is repeated.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
140.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q140):
Assertion (A): Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are designed to prevent ovulation if taken within 24
hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q140):
Assertion (A): Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are designed to prevent ovulation if taken within 24
hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
141.Consider the following statements regarding implants and injections (Q141):
I. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used as injections or implants.
II. Implants are placed under the skin of females.
III. Their mode of action is completely different from that of oral pills.
IV. Their effective periods are much longer than oral pills.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used as injections or implants.
II. Implants are placed under the skin of females.
III. Their mode of action is completely different from that of oral pills.
IV. Their effective periods are much longer than oral pills.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
142.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q142):
Assertion (A): Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
Reason (R): Pills alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q142):
Assertion (A): Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
Reason (R): Pills alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
143.Consider the following statements regarding the contraceptive pill 'Saheli' (Q143):
I. It is a new oral contraceptive for females containing a steroidal preparation.
II. It is a 'once a week' pill.
III. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
IV. It was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It is a new oral contraceptive for females containing a steroidal preparation.
II. It is a 'once a week' pill.
III. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
IV. It was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
144.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q144):
Assertion (A): Emergency contraceptives can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are highly effective when administered within 72 hours
of coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q144):
Assertion (A): Emergency contraceptives can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are highly effective when administered within 72 hours
of coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
145.Consider the following statements regarding oral contraceptive pills (Q145):
I. They contain small doses of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations.
II. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days.
III. Administration should start preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
IV. After a gap of 7 days during which menstruation occurs, the pattern is repeated.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. They contain small doses of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations.
II. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days.
III. Administration should start preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
IV. After a gap of 7 days during which menstruation occurs, the pattern is repeated.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
146.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q146):
Assertion (A): Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are designed to prevent ovulation if taken within 24
hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q146):
Assertion (A): Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are designed to prevent ovulation if taken within 24
hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
147.Consider the following statements regarding implants and injections (Q147):
I. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used as injections or implants.
II. Implants are placed under the skin of females.
III. Their mode of action is completely different from that of oral pills.
IV. Their effective periods are much longer than oral pills.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used as injections or implants.
II. Implants are placed under the skin of females.
III. Their mode of action is completely different from that of oral pills.
IV. Their effective periods are much longer than oral pills.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
148.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q148):
Assertion (A): Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
Reason (R): Pills alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q148):
Assertion (A): Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
Reason (R): Pills alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
149.Consider the following statements regarding the contraceptive pill 'Saheli' (Q149):
I. It is a new oral contraceptive for females containing a steroidal preparation.
II. It is a 'once a week' pill.
III. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
IV. It was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It is a new oral contraceptive for females containing a steroidal preparation.
II. It is a 'once a week' pill.
III. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
IV. It was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
150.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q150):
Assertion (A): Emergency contraceptives can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are highly effective when administered within 72 hours
of coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q150):
Assertion (A): Emergency contraceptives can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Reason (R): Emergency contraceptives are highly effective when administered within 72 hours
of coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
151.Consider the following statements regarding surgical contraception (Q151):
I. Surgical methods are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies.
II. Surgical intervention blocks gamete formation and thereby prevents conception.
III. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an incision on
the scrotum.
IV. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through an incision in
the abdomen or vagina.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Surgical methods are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies.
II. Surgical intervention blocks gamete formation and thereby prevents conception.
III. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an incision on
the scrotum.
IV. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through an incision in
the abdomen or vagina.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
152.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q152):
Assertion (A): Selection of a suitable contraceptive method should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q152):
Assertion (A): Selection of a suitable contraceptive method should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
153.According to NCERT, which of the following are listed as possible ill-effects of
contraceptives (Q153):
I. Nausea and abdominal pain
II. Breakthrough bleeding
III. Irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Breast cancer
Choose the correct option:
contraceptives (Q153):
I. Nausea and abdominal pain
II. Breakthrough bleeding
III. Irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Breast cancer
Choose the correct option:
154.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q154):
Assertion (A): In tubectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an
incision on the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q154):
Assertion (A): In tubectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an
incision on the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
155.Consider the following statements regarding sterilisation efficiency (Q155):
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive techniques.
II. The reversibility of surgical sterilisation procedures is very poor.
III. Reversibility is poor because the cut ends of the ducts can never be re-joined surgically.
IV. Surgical methods are advised as terminal methods for couples who want no more children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive techniques.
II. The reversibility of surgical sterilisation procedures is very poor.
III. Reversibility is poor because the cut ends of the ducts can never be re-joined surgically.
IV. Surgical methods are advised as terminal methods for couples who want no more children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
156.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q156):
Assertion (A): One is forced to use contraceptive methods to prevent or delay pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q156):
Assertion (A): One is forced to use contraceptive methods to prevent or delay pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
157.Consider the following statements regarding surgical contraception (Q157):
I. Surgical methods are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies.
II. Surgical intervention blocks gamete formation and thereby prevents conception.
III. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an incision on
the scrotum.
IV. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through an incision in
the abdomen or vagina.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Surgical methods are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies.
II. Surgical intervention blocks gamete formation and thereby prevents conception.
III. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an incision on
the scrotum.
IV. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through an incision in
the abdomen or vagina.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
158.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q158):
Assertion (A): Selection of a suitable contraceptive method should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q158):
Assertion (A): Selection of a suitable contraceptive method should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
159.According to NCERT, which of the following are listed as possible ill-effects of
contraceptives (Q159):
I. Nausea and abdominal pain
II. Breakthrough bleeding
III. Irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Breast cancer
Choose the correct option:
contraceptives (Q159):
I. Nausea and abdominal pain
II. Breakthrough bleeding
III. Irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Breast cancer
Choose the correct option:
160.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q160):
Assertion (A): In tubectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an
incision on the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q160):
Assertion (A): In tubectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an
incision on the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
161.Consider the following statements regarding sterilisation efficiency (Q161):
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive techniques.
II. The reversibility of surgical sterilisation procedures is very poor.
III. Reversibility is poor because the cut ends of the ducts can never be re-joined surgically.
IV. Surgical methods are advised as terminal methods for couples who want no more children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive techniques.
II. The reversibility of surgical sterilisation procedures is very poor.
III. Reversibility is poor because the cut ends of the ducts can never be re-joined surgically.
IV. Surgical methods are advised as terminal methods for couples who want no more children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
162.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q162):
Assertion (A): One is forced to use contraceptive methods to prevent or delay pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q162):
Assertion (A): One is forced to use contraceptive methods to prevent or delay pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
163.Consider the following statements regarding surgical contraception (Q163):
I. Surgical methods are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies.
II. Surgical intervention blocks gamete formation and thereby prevents conception.
III. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an incision on
the scrotum.
IV. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through an incision in
the abdomen or vagina.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Surgical methods are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies.
II. Surgical intervention blocks gamete formation and thereby prevents conception.
III. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an incision on
the scrotum.
IV. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through an incision in
the abdomen or vagina.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
164.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q164):
Assertion (A): Selection of a suitable contraceptive method should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q164):
Assertion (A): Selection of a suitable contraceptive method should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
165.According to NCERT, which of the following are listed as possible ill-effects of
contraceptives (Q165):
I. Nausea and abdominal pain
II. Breakthrough bleeding
III. Irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Breast cancer
Choose the correct option:
contraceptives (Q165):
I. Nausea and abdominal pain
II. Breakthrough bleeding
III. Irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Breast cancer
Choose the correct option:
166.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q166):
Assertion (A): In tubectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an
incision on the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q166):
Assertion (A): In tubectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an
incision on the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
167.Consider the following statements regarding sterilisation efficiency (Q167):
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive techniques.
II. The reversibility of surgical sterilisation procedures is very poor.
III. Reversibility is poor because the cut ends of the ducts can never be re-joined surgically.
IV. Surgical methods are advised as terminal methods for couples who want no more children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive techniques.
II. The reversibility of surgical sterilisation procedures is very poor.
III. Reversibility is poor because the cut ends of the ducts can never be re-joined surgically.
IV. Surgical methods are advised as terminal methods for couples who want no more children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
168.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q168):
Assertion (A): One is forced to use contraceptive methods to prevent or delay pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q168):
Assertion (A): One is forced to use contraceptive methods to prevent or delay pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
169.Consider the following statements regarding surgical contraception (Q169):
I. Surgical methods are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies.
II. Surgical intervention blocks gamete formation and thereby prevents conception.
III. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an incision on
the scrotum.
IV. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through an incision in
the abdomen or vagina.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Surgical methods are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies.
II. Surgical intervention blocks gamete formation and thereby prevents conception.
III. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an incision on
the scrotum.
IV. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through an incision in
the abdomen or vagina.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
170.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q170):
Assertion (A): Selection of a suitable contraceptive method should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q170):
Assertion (A): Selection of a suitable contraceptive method should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
171.According to NCERT, which of the following are listed as possible ill-effects of
contraceptives (Q171):
I. Nausea and abdominal pain
II. Breakthrough bleeding
III. Irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Breast cancer
Choose the correct option:
contraceptives (Q171):
I. Nausea and abdominal pain
II. Breakthrough bleeding
III. Irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Breast cancer
Choose the correct option:
172.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q172):
Assertion (A): In tubectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an
incision on the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q172):
Assertion (A): In tubectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an
incision on the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
173.Consider the following statements regarding sterilisation efficiency (Q173):
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive techniques.
II. The reversibility of surgical sterilisation procedures is very poor.
III. Reversibility is poor because the cut ends of the ducts can never be re-joined surgically.
IV. Surgical methods are advised as terminal methods for couples who want no more children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive techniques.
II. The reversibility of surgical sterilisation procedures is very poor.
III. Reversibility is poor because the cut ends of the ducts can never be re-joined surgically.
IV. Surgical methods are advised as terminal methods for couples who want no more children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
174.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q174):
Assertion (A): One is forced to use contraceptive methods to prevent or delay pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q174):
Assertion (A): One is forced to use contraceptive methods to prevent or delay pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
175.Consider the following statements regarding surgical contraception (Q175):
I. Surgical methods are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies.
II. Surgical intervention blocks gamete formation and thereby prevents conception.
III. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an incision on
the scrotum.
IV. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through an incision in
the abdomen or vagina.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Surgical methods are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies.
II. Surgical intervention blocks gamete formation and thereby prevents conception.
III. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an incision on
the scrotum.
IV. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through an incision in
the abdomen or vagina.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
176.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q176):
Assertion (A): Selection of a suitable contraceptive method should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q176):
Assertion (A): Selection of a suitable contraceptive method should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
177.According to NCERT, which of the following are listed as possible ill-effects of
contraceptives (Q177):
I. Nausea and abdominal pain
II. Breakthrough bleeding
III. Irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Breast cancer
Choose the correct option:
contraceptives (Q177):
I. Nausea and abdominal pain
II. Breakthrough bleeding
III. Irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Breast cancer
Choose the correct option:
178.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q178):
Assertion (A): In tubectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an
incision on the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q178):
Assertion (A): In tubectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through an
incision on the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
179.Consider the following statements regarding sterilisation efficiency (Q179):
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive techniques.
II. The reversibility of surgical sterilisation procedures is very poor.
III. Reversibility is poor because the cut ends of the ducts can never be re-joined surgically.
IV. Surgical methods are advised as terminal methods for couples who want no more children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive techniques.
II. The reversibility of surgical sterilisation procedures is very poor.
III. Reversibility is poor because the cut ends of the ducts can never be re-joined surgically.
IV. Surgical methods are advised as terminal methods for couples who want no more children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
180.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q180):
Assertion (A): One is forced to use contraceptive methods to prevent or delay pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q180):
Assertion (A): One is forced to use contraceptive methods to prevent or delay pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Reason (R): Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
181.Consider the following claims regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Q181):
I. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
II. Global MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
III. Government of India legalised MTP in the year 1971.
IV. India legalised MTP with strict conditions to check illegal female foeticides.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
II. Global MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
III. Government of India legalised MTP in the year 1971.
IV. India legalised MTP with strict conditions to check illegal female foeticides.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
182.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q182):
Assertion (A): MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester compared to the
second trimester.
Reason (R): Maternal mortality and morbidity due to illegal abortions by unqualified quacks
are high in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q182):
Assertion (A): MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester compared to the
second trimester.
Reason (R): Maternal mortality and morbidity due to illegal abortions by unqualified quacks
are high in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
183.According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 (Q183):
I. Pregnancy may be terminated within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner.
II. If the pregnancy has lasted 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners is required.
III. grounds for termination include risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
IV. grounds include risk of grave injury to physical or mental health of the mother or child
abnormality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Pregnancy may be terminated within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner.
II. If the pregnancy has lasted 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners is required.
III. grounds for termination include risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
IV. grounds include risk of grave injury to physical or mental health of the mother or child
abnormality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
184.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q184):
Assertion (A): Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Reason (R): Strict conditions on MTP were enacted to avoid its misuse and check indiscriminate
female foeticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q184):
Assertion (A): Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Reason (R): Strict conditions on MTP were enacted to avoid its misuse and check indiscriminate
female foeticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
185.Consider the following statements regarding MTP safety (Q185):
I. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
II. Second trimester abortions are much safer due to advanced clinical facilities.
III. A majority of MTPs in India are performed legally by qualified doctors.
IV. Misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination followed by MTP is a dangerous trend.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
II. Second trimester abortions are much safer due to advanced clinical facilities.
III. A majority of MTPs in India are performed legally by qualified doctors.
IV. Misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination followed by MTP is a dangerous trend.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
186.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q186):
Assertion (A): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 requires opinion
of two registered medical practitioners for terminating a pregnancy of 12-24 weeks.
Reason (R): The continuation of the pregnancy could involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or grave injury to her physical or mental health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q186):
Assertion (A): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 requires opinion
of two registered medical practitioners for terminating a pregnancy of 12-24 weeks.
Reason (R): The continuation of the pregnancy could involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or grave injury to her physical or mental health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
187.Consider the following claims regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Q187):
I. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
II. Global MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
III. Government of India legalised MTP in the year 1971.
IV. India legalised MTP with strict conditions to check illegal female foeticides.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
II. Global MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
III. Government of India legalised MTP in the year 1971.
IV. India legalised MTP with strict conditions to check illegal female foeticides.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
188.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q188):
Assertion (A): MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester compared to the
second trimester.
Reason (R): Maternal mortality and morbidity due to illegal abortions by unqualified quacks
are high in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q188):
Assertion (A): MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester compared to the
second trimester.
Reason (R): Maternal mortality and morbidity due to illegal abortions by unqualified quacks
are high in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
189.According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 (Q189):
I. Pregnancy may be terminated within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner.
II. If the pregnancy has lasted 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners is required.
III. grounds for termination include risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
IV. grounds include risk of grave injury to physical or mental health of the mother or child
abnormality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Pregnancy may be terminated within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner.
II. If the pregnancy has lasted 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners is required.
III. grounds for termination include risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
IV. grounds include risk of grave injury to physical or mental health of the mother or child
abnormality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
190.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q190):
Assertion (A): Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Reason (R): Strict conditions on MTP were enacted to avoid its misuse and check indiscriminate
female foeticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q190):
Assertion (A): Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Reason (R): Strict conditions on MTP were enacted to avoid its misuse and check indiscriminate
female foeticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
191.Consider the following statements regarding MTP safety (Q191):
I. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
II. Second trimester abortions are much safer due to advanced clinical facilities.
III. A majority of MTPs in India are performed legally by qualified doctors.
IV. Misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination followed by MTP is a dangerous trend.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
II. Second trimester abortions are much safer due to advanced clinical facilities.
III. A majority of MTPs in India are performed legally by qualified doctors.
IV. Misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination followed by MTP is a dangerous trend.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
192.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q192):
Assertion (A): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 requires opinion
of two registered medical practitioners for terminating a pregnancy of 12-24 weeks.
Reason (R): The continuation of the pregnancy could involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or grave injury to her physical or mental health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q192):
Assertion (A): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 requires opinion
of two registered medical practitioners for terminating a pregnancy of 12-24 weeks.
Reason (R): The continuation of the pregnancy could involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or grave injury to her physical or mental health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
193.Consider the following claims regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Q193):
I. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
II. Global MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
III. Government of India legalised MTP in the year 1971.
IV. India legalised MTP with strict conditions to check illegal female foeticides.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
II. Global MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
III. Government of India legalised MTP in the year 1971.
IV. India legalised MTP with strict conditions to check illegal female foeticides.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
194.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q194):
Assertion (A): MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester compared to the
second trimester.
Reason (R): Maternal mortality and morbidity due to illegal abortions by unqualified quacks
are high in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q194):
Assertion (A): MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester compared to the
second trimester.
Reason (R): Maternal mortality and morbidity due to illegal abortions by unqualified quacks
are high in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
195.According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 (Q195):
I. Pregnancy may be terminated within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner.
II. If the pregnancy has lasted 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners is required.
III. grounds for termination include risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
IV. grounds include risk of grave injury to physical or mental health of the mother or child
abnormality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Pregnancy may be terminated within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner.
II. If the pregnancy has lasted 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners is required.
III. grounds for termination include risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
IV. grounds include risk of grave injury to physical or mental health of the mother or child
abnormality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
196.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q196):
Assertion (A): Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Reason (R): Strict conditions on MTP were enacted to avoid its misuse and check indiscriminate
female foeticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q196):
Assertion (A): Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Reason (R): Strict conditions on MTP were enacted to avoid its misuse and check indiscriminate
female foeticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
197.Consider the following statements regarding MTP safety (Q197):
I. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
II. Second trimester abortions are much safer due to advanced clinical facilities.
III. A majority of MTPs in India are performed legally by qualified doctors.
IV. Misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination followed by MTP is a dangerous trend.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
II. Second trimester abortions are much safer due to advanced clinical facilities.
III. A majority of MTPs in India are performed legally by qualified doctors.
IV. Misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination followed by MTP is a dangerous trend.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
198.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q198):
Assertion (A): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 requires opinion
of two registered medical practitioners for terminating a pregnancy of 12-24 weeks.
Reason (R): The continuation of the pregnancy could involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or grave injury to her physical or mental health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q198):
Assertion (A): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 requires opinion
of two registered medical practitioners for terminating a pregnancy of 12-24 weeks.
Reason (R): The continuation of the pregnancy could involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or grave injury to her physical or mental health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
199.Consider the following claims regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Q199):
I. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
II. Global MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
III. Government of India legalised MTP in the year 1971.
IV. India legalised MTP with strict conditions to check illegal female foeticides.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
II. Global MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
III. Government of India legalised MTP in the year 1971.
IV. India legalised MTP with strict conditions to check illegal female foeticides.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
200.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q200):
Assertion (A): MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester compared to the
second trimester.
Reason (R): Maternal mortality and morbidity due to illegal abortions by unqualified quacks
are high in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q200):
Assertion (A): MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester compared to the
second trimester.
Reason (R): Maternal mortality and morbidity due to illegal abortions by unqualified quacks
are high in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
201.According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 (Q201):
I. Pregnancy may be terminated within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner.
II. If the pregnancy has lasted 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners is required.
III. grounds for termination include risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
IV. grounds include risk of grave injury to physical or mental health of the mother or child
abnormality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Pregnancy may be terminated within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner.
II. If the pregnancy has lasted 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners is required.
III. grounds for termination include risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
IV. grounds include risk of grave injury to physical or mental health of the mother or child
abnormality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
202.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q202):
Assertion (A): Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Reason (R): Strict conditions on MTP were enacted to avoid its misuse and check indiscriminate
female foeticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q202):
Assertion (A): Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Reason (R): Strict conditions on MTP were enacted to avoid its misuse and check indiscriminate
female foeticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
203.Consider the following statements regarding MTP safety (Q203):
I. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
II. Second trimester abortions are much safer due to advanced clinical facilities.
III. A majority of MTPs in India are performed legally by qualified doctors.
IV. Misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination followed by MTP is a dangerous trend.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
II. Second trimester abortions are much safer due to advanced clinical facilities.
III. A majority of MTPs in India are performed legally by qualified doctors.
IV. Misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination followed by MTP is a dangerous trend.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
204.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q204):
Assertion (A): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 requires opinion
of two registered medical practitioners for terminating a pregnancy of 12-24 weeks.
Reason (R): The continuation of the pregnancy could involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or grave injury to her physical or mental health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q204):
Assertion (A): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 requires opinion
of two registered medical practitioners for terminating a pregnancy of 12-24 weeks.
Reason (R): The continuation of the pregnancy could involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or grave injury to her physical or mental health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
205.Consider the following claims regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Q205):
I. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
II. Global MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
III. Government of India legalised MTP in the year 1971.
IV. India legalised MTP with strict conditions to check illegal female foeticides.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
II. Global MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
III. Government of India legalised MTP in the year 1971.
IV. India legalised MTP with strict conditions to check illegal female foeticides.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
206.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q206):
Assertion (A): MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester compared to the
second trimester.
Reason (R): Maternal mortality and morbidity due to illegal abortions by unqualified quacks
are high in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q206):
Assertion (A): MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester compared to the
second trimester.
Reason (R): Maternal mortality and morbidity due to illegal abortions by unqualified quacks
are high in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
207.According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 (Q207):
I. Pregnancy may be terminated within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner.
II. If the pregnancy has lasted 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners is required.
III. grounds for termination include risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
IV. grounds include risk of grave injury to physical or mental health of the mother or child
abnormality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Pregnancy may be terminated within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner.
II. If the pregnancy has lasted 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners is required.
III. grounds for termination include risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
IV. grounds include risk of grave injury to physical or mental health of the mother or child
abnormality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
208.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q208):
Assertion (A): Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Reason (R): Strict conditions on MTP were enacted to avoid its misuse and check indiscriminate
female foeticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q208):
Assertion (A): Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Reason (R): Strict conditions on MTP were enacted to avoid its misuse and check indiscriminate
female foeticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
209.Consider the following statements regarding MTP safety (Q209):
I. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
II. Second trimester abortions are much safer due to advanced clinical facilities.
III. A majority of MTPs in India are performed legally by qualified doctors.
IV. Misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination followed by MTP is a dangerous trend.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
II. Second trimester abortions are much safer due to advanced clinical facilities.
III. A majority of MTPs in India are performed legally by qualified doctors.
IV. Misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination followed by MTP is a dangerous trend.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
210.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q210):
Assertion (A): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 requires opinion
of two registered medical practitioners for terminating a pregnancy of 12-24 weeks.
Reason (R): The continuation of the pregnancy could involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or grave injury to her physical or mental health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q210):
Assertion (A): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 requires opinion
of two registered medical practitioners for terminating a pregnancy of 12-24 weeks.
Reason (R): The continuation of the pregnancy could involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or grave injury to her physical or mental health.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
211.Consider the following statements regarding the curability of Sexually Transmitted
Infections (STIs) (Q211):
I. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis are completely curable if detected early.
II. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections are not completely curable.
III. Trichomoniasis and genital warts are curable if detected early and treated properly.
IV. All STIs are completely curable due to modern antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Infections (STIs) (Q211):
I. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis are completely curable if detected early.
II. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections are not completely curable.
III. Trichomoniasis and genital warts are curable if detected early and treated properly.
IV. All STIs are completely curable due to modern antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
212.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q212):
Assertion (A): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce one is called GIFT.
Reason (R): GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q212):
Assertion (A): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce one is called GIFT.
Reason (R): GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
213.Consider the following statements regarding ZIFT and IUT procedures (Q213):
I. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT).
II. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).
III. In vitro fertilisation refers to the fusion of gametes within the female body.
IV. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation cannot be used for transfer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT).
II. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).
III. In vitro fertilisation refers to the fusion of gametes within the female body.
IV. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation cannot be used for transfer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
214.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q214):
Assertion (A): Incidences of STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group
of 15-24 years.
Reason (R): Persons in the age group of 15-24 years are sexually active and often neglect
prevention principles due to lack of sex education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q214):
Assertion (A): Incidences of STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group
of 15-24 years.
Reason (R): Persons in the age group of 15-24 years are sexually active and often neglect
prevention principles due to lack of sex education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
215.Consider the following statements regarding STI symptoms and complications (Q215):
I. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings in genital region.
II. Infected females are mostly symptomatic and quickly seek medical attention.
III. Complications include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), still births, and ectopic
pregnancies.
IV. Long term complications include infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings in genital region.
II. Infected females are mostly symptomatic and quickly seek medical attention.
III. Complications include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), still births, and ectopic
pregnancies.
IV. Long term complications include infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
216.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q216):
Assertion (A): Infertility cases due to very low sperm counts can be corrected by ICSI.
Reason (R): In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q216):
Assertion (A): Infertility cases due to very low sperm counts can be corrected by ICSI.
Reason (R): In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
217.Consider the following statements regarding the curability of Sexually Transmitted
Infections (STIs) (Q217):
I. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis are completely curable if detected early.
II. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections are not completely curable.
III. Trichomoniasis and genital warts are curable if detected early and treated properly.
IV. All STIs are completely curable due to modern antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Infections (STIs) (Q217):
I. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis are completely curable if detected early.
II. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections are not completely curable.
III. Trichomoniasis and genital warts are curable if detected early and treated properly.
IV. All STIs are completely curable due to modern antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
218.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q218):
Assertion (A): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce one is called GIFT.
Reason (R): GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q218):
Assertion (A): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce one is called GIFT.
Reason (R): GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
219.Consider the following statements regarding ZIFT and IUT procedures (Q219):
I. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT).
II. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).
III. In vitro fertilisation refers to the fusion of gametes within the female body.
IV. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation cannot be used for transfer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT).
II. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).
III. In vitro fertilisation refers to the fusion of gametes within the female body.
IV. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation cannot be used for transfer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
220.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q220):
Assertion (A): Incidences of STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group
of 15-24 years.
Reason (R): Persons in the age group of 15-24 years are sexually active and often neglect
prevention principles due to lack of sex education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q220):
Assertion (A): Incidences of STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group
of 15-24 years.
Reason (R): Persons in the age group of 15-24 years are sexually active and often neglect
prevention principles due to lack of sex education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
221.Consider the following statements regarding STI symptoms and complications (Q221):
I. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings in genital region.
II. Infected females are mostly symptomatic and quickly seek medical attention.
III. Complications include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), still births, and ectopic
pregnancies.
IV. Long term complications include infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings in genital region.
II. Infected females are mostly symptomatic and quickly seek medical attention.
III. Complications include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), still births, and ectopic
pregnancies.
IV. Long term complications include infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
222.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q222):
Assertion (A): Infertility cases due to very low sperm counts can be corrected by ICSI.
Reason (R): In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q222):
Assertion (A): Infertility cases due to very low sperm counts can be corrected by ICSI.
Reason (R): In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
223.Consider the following statements regarding the curability of Sexually Transmitted
Infections (STIs) (Q223):
I. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis are completely curable if detected early.
II. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections are not completely curable.
III. Trichomoniasis and genital warts are curable if detected early and treated properly.
IV. All STIs are completely curable due to modern antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Infections (STIs) (Q223):
I. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis are completely curable if detected early.
II. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections are not completely curable.
III. Trichomoniasis and genital warts are curable if detected early and treated properly.
IV. All STIs are completely curable due to modern antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
224.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q224):
Assertion (A): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce one is called GIFT.
Reason (R): GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q224):
Assertion (A): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce one is called GIFT.
Reason (R): GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
225.Consider the following statements regarding ZIFT and IUT procedures (Q225):
I. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT).
II. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).
III. In vitro fertilisation refers to the fusion of gametes within the female body.
IV. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation cannot be used for transfer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT).
II. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).
III. In vitro fertilisation refers to the fusion of gametes within the female body.
IV. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation cannot be used for transfer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
226.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q226):
Assertion (A): Incidences of STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group
of 15-24 years.
Reason (R): Persons in the age group of 15-24 years are sexually active and often neglect
prevention principles due to lack of sex education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q226):
Assertion (A): Incidences of STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group
of 15-24 years.
Reason (R): Persons in the age group of 15-24 years are sexually active and often neglect
prevention principles due to lack of sex education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
227.Consider the following statements regarding STI symptoms and complications (Q227):
I. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings in genital region.
II. Infected females are mostly symptomatic and quickly seek medical attention.
III. Complications include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), still births, and ectopic
pregnancies.
IV. Long term complications include infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings in genital region.
II. Infected females are mostly symptomatic and quickly seek medical attention.
III. Complications include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), still births, and ectopic
pregnancies.
IV. Long term complications include infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
228.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q228):
Assertion (A): Infertility cases due to very low sperm counts can be corrected by ICSI.
Reason (R): In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q228):
Assertion (A): Infertility cases due to very low sperm counts can be corrected by ICSI.
Reason (R): In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
229.Consider the following statements regarding the curability of Sexually Transmitted
Infections (STIs) (Q229):
I. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis are completely curable if detected early.
II. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections are not completely curable.
III. Trichomoniasis and genital warts are curable if detected early and treated properly.
IV. All STIs are completely curable due to modern antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Infections (STIs) (Q229):
I. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis are completely curable if detected early.
II. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections are not completely curable.
III. Trichomoniasis and genital warts are curable if detected early and treated properly.
IV. All STIs are completely curable due to modern antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
230.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q230):
Assertion (A): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce one is called GIFT.
Reason (R): GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q230):
Assertion (A): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce one is called GIFT.
Reason (R): GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
231.Consider the following statements regarding ZIFT and IUT procedures (Q231):
I. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT).
II. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).
III. In vitro fertilisation refers to the fusion of gametes within the female body.
IV. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation cannot be used for transfer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT).
II. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).
III. In vitro fertilisation refers to the fusion of gametes within the female body.
IV. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation cannot be used for transfer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
232.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q232):
Assertion (A): Incidences of STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group
of 15-24 years.
Reason (R): Persons in the age group of 15-24 years are sexually active and often neglect
prevention principles due to lack of sex education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q232):
Assertion (A): Incidences of STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group
of 15-24 years.
Reason (R): Persons in the age group of 15-24 years are sexually active and often neglect
prevention principles due to lack of sex education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
233.Consider the following statements regarding STI symptoms and complications (Q233):
I. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings in genital region.
II. Infected females are mostly symptomatic and quickly seek medical attention.
III. Complications include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), still births, and ectopic
pregnancies.
IV. Long term complications include infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings in genital region.
II. Infected females are mostly symptomatic and quickly seek medical attention.
III. Complications include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), still births, and ectopic
pregnancies.
IV. Long term complications include infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
234.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q234):
Assertion (A): Infertility cases due to very low sperm counts can be corrected by ICSI.
Reason (R): In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q234):
Assertion (A): Infertility cases due to very low sperm counts can be corrected by ICSI.
Reason (R): In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
235.Consider the following statements regarding the curability of Sexually Transmitted
Infections (STIs) (Q235):
I. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis are completely curable if detected early.
II. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections are not completely curable.
III. Trichomoniasis and genital warts are curable if detected early and treated properly.
IV. All STIs are completely curable due to modern antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Infections (STIs) (Q235):
I. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis are completely curable if detected early.
II. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections are not completely curable.
III. Trichomoniasis and genital warts are curable if detected early and treated properly.
IV. All STIs are completely curable due to modern antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
236.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q236):
Assertion (A): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce one is called GIFT.
Reason (R): GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q236):
Assertion (A): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce one is called GIFT.
Reason (R): GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
237.Consider the following statements regarding ZIFT and IUT procedures (Q237):
I. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT).
II. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).
III. In vitro fertilisation refers to the fusion of gametes within the female body.
IV. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation cannot be used for transfer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT).
II. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).
III. In vitro fertilisation refers to the fusion of gametes within the female body.
IV. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation cannot be used for transfer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
238.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q238):
Assertion (A): Incidences of STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group
of 15-24 years.
Reason (R): Persons in the age group of 15-24 years are sexually active and often neglect
prevention principles due to lack of sex education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q238):
Assertion (A): Incidences of STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group
of 15-24 years.
Reason (R): Persons in the age group of 15-24 years are sexually active and often neglect
prevention principles due to lack of sex education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
239.Consider the following statements regarding STI symptoms and complications (Q239):
I. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings in genital region.
II. Infected females are mostly symptomatic and quickly seek medical attention.
III. Complications include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), still births, and ectopic
pregnancies.
IV. Long term complications include infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings in genital region.
II. Infected females are mostly symptomatic and quickly seek medical attention.
III. Complications include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), still births, and ectopic
pregnancies.
IV. Long term complications include infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
240.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) (Q240):
Assertion (A): Infertility cases due to very low sperm counts can be corrected by ICSI.
Reason (R): In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
as Reason (R) (Q240):
Assertion (A): Infertility cases due to very low sperm counts can be corrected by ICSI.
Reason (R): In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Answer Key
11
23
31
42
54
63
72
83
93
102
112
122
132
141
151
162
174
183
192
201
211
223
232
244
252
263
272
281
294
303
313
322
331
342
352
364
373
382
391
401
411
422
431
443
453
463
474
483
493
503
513
522
534
544
552
562
573
581
593
603
613
622
631
644
653
664
672
684
692
703
714
723
732
741
753
764
774
782
794
804
811
823
833
844
854
863
872
881
892
903
912
924
933
941
952
964
972
984
992
1001
1014
1024
1031
1042
1054
1061
1071
1082
1094
1102
1113
1121
1132
1141
1152
1164
1174
1182
1193
1202
1214
1221
1232
1244
1251
1264
1272
1284
1293
1303
1314
1324
1333
1343
1354
1361
1374
1382
1392
1402
1414
1421
1434
1442
1452
1464
1472
1483
1494
1501
1514
1522
1532
1542
1552
1562
1573
1582
1593
1603
1614
1621
1631
1641
1651
1661
1673
1681
1693
1701
1714
1721
1733
1742
1751
1762
1774
1781
1791
1802
1811
1823
1833
1841
1853
1862
1873
1881
1893
1903
1911
1924
1932
1941
1953
1962
1971
1984
1992
2001
2012
2022
2031
2041
2053
2064
2074
2083
2093
2103
2111
2122
2133
2143
2151
2161
2174
2182
2192
2201
2212
2222
2231
2242
2254
2263
2273
2282
2291
2301
2313
2323
2332
2343
2353
2361
2372
2384
2391
2402