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NEET ]1[ Contd...
NEET Biology Class 12 - Human Health and Disease Ultra-Hard Question Bank
Instructions:
- Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
- Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
- Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
- Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Consider the following statements regarding the contributions and life of M.S.
Swaminathan:
I. M.S. Swaminathan completed his graduation in Botany and post-graduation in Genetics from
Madras University.
II. The School of Cytogenetics and Radiation Research was established at the Indian
Agricultural Research Institute (IARI).
III. M.S. Swaminathan developed short-duration high-yielding varieties of wheat, including
scented Basmati.
IV. He developed the concepts of crop cafeteria, crop scheduling and genetically improving the
yield and quality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Swaminathan:
I. M.S. Swaminathan completed his graduation in Botany and post-graduation in Genetics from
Madras University.
II. The School of Cytogenetics and Radiation Research was established at the Indian
Agricultural Research Institute (IARI).
III. M.S. Swaminathan developed short-duration high-yielding varieties of wheat, including
scented Basmati.
IV. He developed the concepts of crop cafeteria, crop scheduling and genetically improving the
yield and quality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): M.S. Swaminathan is known for the development of the concept of crop cafeteria
and crop scheduling.
Reason (R): He initiated collaboration with Norman Borlaug, which culminated in the 'Green
Revolution' through the introduction of Mexican varieties of wheat in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): M.S. Swaminathan is known for the development of the concept of crop cafeteria
and crop scheduling.
Reason (R): He initiated collaboration with Norman Borlaug, which culminated in the 'Green
Revolution' through the introduction of Mexican varieties of wheat in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
3.Consider the following statements regarding the programmes initiated by and honours
bestowed upon M.S. Swaminathan:
I. M.S. Swaminathan is the initiator of the 'Lab-to-Land' and food security programmes.
II. He developed high-yielding varieties of rice under the 'Lab-to-Land' initiative in
collaboration with Norman Borlaug.
III. M.S. Swaminathan was honoured with the Padma Vibhushan for his environmental and
agricultural programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
bestowed upon M.S. Swaminathan:
I. M.S. Swaminathan is the initiator of the 'Lab-to-Land' and food security programmes.
II. He developed high-yielding varieties of rice under the 'Lab-to-Land' initiative in
collaboration with Norman Borlaug.
III. M.S. Swaminathan was honoured with the Padma Vibhushan for his environmental and
agricultural programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Monkambu Sambasivan Swaminathan completed his academic degrees of
graduation and post-graduation in Botany from Madras University.
Reason (R): He was born in August 1925 in Kumbakonam in Karnataka.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Monkambu Sambasivan Swaminathan completed his academic degrees of
graduation and post-graduation in Botany from Madras University.
Reason (R): He was born in August 1925 in Kumbakonam in Karnataka.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
5.Consider the following statements regarding the institutional roles and research output of
M.S. Swaminathan:
I. He developed his expertise in genetics and plant breeding by working in various institutions in
India and abroad.
II. His research team developed short-duration high-yielding varieties of scented Basmati rice.
III. The School of Cytogenetics and Radiation Research was established under his leadership at
Madras University.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
M.S. Swaminathan:
I. He developed his expertise in genetics and plant breeding by working in various institutions in
India and abroad.
II. His research team developed short-duration high-yielding varieties of scented Basmati rice.
III. The School of Cytogenetics and Radiation Research was established under his leadership at
Madras University.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
6.Consider the following statements regarding the early historical concepts of health:
I. The 'good humor' hypothesis asserted that health is a state of body and mind characterized by
a balance of certain humors.
II. The belief that individuals with 'blackbile' had hot personalities and would have fevers was
developed through extensive clinical trials.
III. Both early Greek scholars like Hippocrates and the Indian Ayurveda system of medicine
supported the good humor hypothesis.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. The 'good humor' hypothesis asserted that health is a state of body and mind characterized by
a balance of certain humors.
II. The belief that individuals with 'blackbile' had hot personalities and would have fevers was
developed through extensive clinical trials.
III. Both early Greek scholars like Hippocrates and the Indian Ayurveda system of medicine
supported the good humor hypothesis.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
7.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The 'good humor' hypothesis of health was disproved by demonstrating that
individuals with blackbile had normal body temperatures.
Reason (R): William Harvey discovered blood circulation using the experimental method and
used a thermometer to demonstrate normal body temperature in persons with blackbile.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The 'good humor' hypothesis of health was disproved by demonstrating that
individuals with blackbile had normal body temperatures.
Reason (R): William Harvey discovered blood circulation using the experimental method and
used a thermometer to demonstrate normal body temperature in persons with blackbile.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
8.Consider the following statements regarding the biological understanding of health in later
years:
I. According to biology, the mind influences our immune system through the neural and
endocrine systems.
II. Genetic disorders refer to deficiencies with which a child is born, and deficiencies or defects
which the child inherits from parents from birth.
III. The 'good humor' hypothesis proposed that the immune system is maintained by the
endocrine system alone.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
years:
I. According to biology, the mind influences our immune system through the neural and
endocrine systems.
II. Genetic disorders refer to deficiencies with which a child is born, and deficiencies or defects
which the child inherits from parents from birth.
III. The 'good humor' hypothesis proposed that the immune system is maintained by the
endocrine system alone.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
9.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A person who is physically fit and has no disease can always be considered
completely healthy in the true sense of the term.
Reason (R): Health is defined as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being,
which increases productivity and longevity.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A person who is physically fit and has no disease can always be considered
completely healthy in the true sense of the term.
Reason (R): Health is defined as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being,
which increases productivity and longevity.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
10.Consider the following measures related to health:
I. Balanced diet, personal hygiene, and regular exercise.
II. Control of vectors and proper disposal of wastes.
III. Awareness about diseases and their effect on different bodily functions.
IV. Vaccination (immunisation) against infectious diseases.
According to the precise classification in NCERT Chapter 7, which of the above are specifically
stated as necessary for *achieving* good health, rather than just *maintaining* it?
I. Balanced diet, personal hygiene, and regular exercise.
II. Control of vectors and proper disposal of wastes.
III. Awareness about diseases and their effect on different bodily functions.
IV. Vaccination (immunisation) against infectious diseases.
According to the precise classification in NCERT Chapter 7, which of the above are specifically
stated as necessary for *achieving* good health, rather than just *maintaining* it?
11.Consider the following statements regarding pathogens and parasites:
I. Most parasites are pathogens because they cause harm to the host by living in or on them.
II. All pathogens are parasites because they must live inside the host's body to multiply.
III. Pathogens can enter our body by various means, multiply, and interfere with normal vital
activities, resulting in morphological and functional damage.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Most parasites are pathogens because they cause harm to the host by living in or on them.
II. All pathogens are parasites because they must live inside the host's body to multiply.
III. Pathogens can enter our body by various means, multiply, and interfere with normal vital
activities, resulting in morphological and functional damage.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
12.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pathogens entering the human gut must possess mechanisms to survive at a low
pH and resist various digestive enzymes.
Reason (R): Pathogens have to adapt to life within the environment of the host to survive and
cause damage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pathogens entering the human gut must possess mechanisms to survive at a low
pH and resist various digestive enzymes.
Reason (R): Pathogens have to adapt to life within the environment of the host to survive and
cause damage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
13.Consider the following statements regarding the prevalence and classification of diseases:
I. Diseases which are easily transmitted from one person to another are called infectious
diseases.
II. Some of the infectious diseases, such as AIDS, are fatal.
III. Every one of us suffers from non-infectious diseases at some time or other during our
lifetime.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Diseases which are easily transmitted from one person to another are called infectious
diseases.
II. Some of the infectious diseases, such as AIDS, are fatal.
III. Every one of us suffers from non-infectious diseases at some time or other during our
lifetime.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
14.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cancer is classified as an infectious disease because it is a major cause of death all
over the globe.
Reason (R): Infectious diseases like AIDS are fatal and easily transmitted from one person to
another.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cancer is classified as an infectious disease because it is a major cause of death all
over the globe.
Reason (R): Infectious diseases like AIDS are fatal and easily transmitted from one person to
another.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
15.Consider the following statements regarding the mechanism of action of pathogens inside
the host body:
I. Pathogens must enter the host body, multiply, and interfere with normal vital activities to
cause disease.
II. Pathogen entry into the host body always results in functional damage, but never
morphological damage.
III. All organisms belonging to bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, and helminths are
pathogenic to human beings.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
the host body:
I. Pathogens must enter the host body, multiply, and interfere with normal vital activities to
cause disease.
II. Pathogen entry into the host body always results in functional damage, but never
morphological damage.
III. All organisms belonging to bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, and helminths are
pathogenic to human beings.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
16.Consider the following statements regarding the bacterium Salmonella typhi and its course
of infection:
I. Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium that enters the large intestine of humans through
contaminated food and water.
II. The pathogen migrates to other organs of the body through the lymphatic system.
III. Typhoid fever is characterized by sustained high fever of 39° to 40°C, stomach pain,
constipation, and headache.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
of infection:
I. Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium that enters the large intestine of humans through
contaminated food and water.
II. The pathogen migrates to other organs of the body through the lymphatic system.
III. Typhoid fever is characterized by sustained high fever of 39° to 40°C, stomach pain,
constipation, and headache.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
17.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Sustained high fever of 39° to 40°F is a common symptom of typhoid fever.
Reason (R): Widal test is a widely used diagnostic test to confirm typhoid fever in human
beings.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Sustained high fever of 39° to 40°F is a common symptom of typhoid fever.
Reason (R): Widal test is a widely used diagnostic test to confirm typhoid fever in human
beings.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
18.Which of the following statements regarding the diagnosis and confirmation of bacterial
diseases is/are correct according to NCERT?
I. Typhoid fever is confirmed by the ELISA test.
II. Streptococcus pneumoniae infections are diagnosed using the Widal test.
III. Intestinal perforation in severe cases of typhoid is a pathognomonic symptom that can be
used to confirm the disease without any diagnostic test.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
diseases is/are correct according to NCERT?
I. Typhoid fever is confirmed by the ELISA test.
II. Streptococcus pneumoniae infections are diagnosed using the Widal test.
III. Intestinal perforation in severe cases of typhoid is a pathognomonic symptom that can be
used to confirm the disease without any diagnostic test.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
19.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Mary Mallon, nicknamed Typhoid Mary, was a classic case of an active typhoid
patient who suffered from sustained high fever for several years.
Reason (R): She was a cook by profession and was a typhoid carrier who continued to spread
typhoid for several years through the food she prepared.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Mary Mallon, nicknamed Typhoid Mary, was a classic case of an active typhoid
patient who suffered from sustained high fever for several years.
Reason (R): She was a cook by profession and was a typhoid carrier who continued to spread
typhoid for several years through the food she prepared.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
20.Consider the following symptom groups:
I. Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, and stomach pain.
II. Diarrhoea, high fever recurring every three to four days, and chills.
III. Constipation, headache, and loss of appetite.
IV. Nasal congestion, sore throat, and hoarseness.
Which of the above sets of symptoms are characteristics of a typhoid infection according to
NCERT?
I. Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, and stomach pain.
II. Diarrhoea, high fever recurring every three to four days, and chills.
III. Constipation, headache, and loss of appetite.
IV. Nasal congestion, sore throat, and hoarseness.
Which of the above sets of symptoms are characteristics of a typhoid infection according to
NCERT?
21.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Salmonella typhi utilizes the circulatory system to migrate from the small
intestine to other organs of the body.
Reason (R): Blood circulation is the primary pathway by which Salmonella typhi enters the
human gastrointestinal tract.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Salmonella typhi utilizes the circulatory system to migrate from the small
intestine to other organs of the body.
Reason (R): Blood circulation is the primary pathway by which Salmonella typhi enters the
human gastrointestinal tract.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
22.Consider the following statements regarding Salmonella typhi infection:
I. Salmonella typhi causes physical damage to the large intestine leading to perforation in severe
cases.
II. Food and water contaminated with the pathogen are the primary vehicles for the
transmission of typhoid fever.
III. The Widal test is a serological test used to confirm the presence of typhoid fever.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Salmonella typhi causes physical damage to the large intestine leading to perforation in severe
cases.
II. Food and water contaminated with the pathogen are the primary vehicles for the
transmission of typhoid fever.
III. The Widal test is a serological test used to confirm the presence of typhoid fever.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
23.Consider the following statements regarding pneumonia in humans:
I. Pneumonia is caused exclusively by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae.
II. The target of infection in pneumonia is the alveoli, which are air-filled sacs of the lungs.
III. As a result of pneumonia infection, the bronchi and bronchioles get filled with fluid, while
alveoli remain dry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. Pneumonia is caused exclusively by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae.
II. The target of infection in pneumonia is the alveoli, which are air-filled sacs of the lungs.
III. As a result of pneumonia infection, the bronchi and bronchioles get filled with fluid, while
alveoli remain dry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
24.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In severe cases of pneumonia, the lips and finger nails of the patient may turn
gray to bluish in color.
Reason (R): As a result of the infection, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe
problems in respiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In severe cases of pneumonia, the lips and finger nails of the patient may turn
gray to bluish in color.
Reason (R): As a result of the infection, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe
problems in respiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
25.Consider the following statements regarding the transmission of pneumonia and other
bacterial diseases in humans:
I. A healthy person can acquire pneumonia by sharing glasses and utensils with an infected
person.
II. Dysentery, plague, and diphtheria are examples of non-bacterial diseases in humans.
III. Inhaling droplets or aerosols released by an infected person is a primary mode of acquiring
pneumonia.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
bacterial diseases in humans:
I. A healthy person can acquire pneumonia by sharing glasses and utensils with an infected
person.
II. Dysentery, plague, and diphtheria are examples of non-bacterial diseases in humans.
III. Inhaling droplets or aerosols released by an infected person is a primary mode of acquiring
pneumonia.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
26.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Haemophilus influenzae is a virus that causes influenza and pneumonia in
humans.
Reason (R): In pneumonia, the alveoli get filled with fluid, leading to severe respiratory
problems.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Haemophilus influenzae is a virus that causes influenza and pneumonia in
humans.
Reason (R): In pneumonia, the alveoli get filled with fluid, leading to severe respiratory
problems.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
27.Consider the following statements regarding Rhino viruses and their infection in humans:
I. Rhinovirus is a group of viruses that cause the common cold, which is one of the most
infectious human ailments.
II. Rhinovirus infects the nose, respiratory passage, and the alveoli of the lungs.
III. The common cold is characterised by nasal congestion, sore throat, hoarseness, and a
sustained high fever of 39° to 40°C.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. Rhinovirus is a group of viruses that cause the common cold, which is one of the most
infectious human ailments.
II. Rhinovirus infects the nose, respiratory passage, and the alveoli of the lungs.
III. The common cold is characterised by nasal congestion, sore throat, hoarseness, and a
sustained high fever of 39° to 40°C.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
28.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The common cold symptoms, including nasal congestion and hoarseness,
typically resolve within a period of 3 to 7 weeks.
Reason (R): The common cold is a self-limiting infection that affects the nose and respiratory
passages but spares the lungs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The common cold symptoms, including nasal congestion and hoarseness,
typically resolve within a period of 3 to 7 weeks.
Reason (R): The common cold is a self-limiting infection that affects the nose and respiratory
passages but spares the lungs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
29.Which of the following are modes of transmission of Rhino viruses according to the
NCERT textbook?
I. Direct inhalation of droplets from the cough or sneezes of an infected person.
II. Using contaminated objects such as pens, books, and cups.
III. Touching contaminated surfaces like doorknobs, computer keyboards, or a mouse.
IV. Sharing water and food contaminated with the pathogen.
Choose the correct option:
NCERT textbook?
I. Direct inhalation of droplets from the cough or sneezes of an infected person.
II. Using contaminated objects such as pens, books, and cups.
III. Touching contaminated surfaces like doorknobs, computer keyboards, or a mouse.
IV. Sharing water and food contaminated with the pathogen.
Choose the correct option:
30.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Although both pneumonia and the common cold are highly infectious respiratory
ailments, they target different parts of the respiratory system.
Reason (R): Rhinovirus infects the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs, whereas
Streptococcus pneumoniae infects the alveoli of the lungs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Although both pneumonia and the common cold are highly infectious respiratory
ailments, they target different parts of the respiratory system.
Reason (R): Rhinovirus infects the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs, whereas
Streptococcus pneumoniae infects the alveoli of the lungs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
31.Assertion: Different species of Plasmodium are responsible for different types of malaria,
but they all cause equally life-threatening and fatal clinical outcomes in infected humans.
Reason: Malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious type of
malaria and can even be fatal.
but they all cause equally life-threatening and fatal clinical outcomes in infected humans.
Reason: Malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious type of
malaria and can even be fatal.
32.Consider the following statements regarding the initial stages of the Plasmodium life cycle
in the human host:
Statement I: The malarial parasite enters the human body as mature gametocytes through the
bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Statement II: Upon entering the bloodstream, the parasites immediately attack the red blood
cells (RBCs) to initiate rapid asexual multiplication, followed by liver invasion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
in the human host:
Statement I: The malarial parasite enters the human body as mature gametocytes through the
bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Statement II: Upon entering the bloodstream, the parasites immediately attack the red blood
cells (RBCs) to initiate rapid asexual multiplication, followed by liver invasion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
33.Assertion: The characteristic recurring high fever and chills of malaria are observed
during the liver phase of the Plasmodium life cycle when hepatocytes rupture.
Reason: The rupture of liver cells releases a toxic crystalline substance called haemozoin, which
directly triggers the immune response every 24 to 48 hours.
during the liver phase of the Plasmodium life cycle when hepatocytes rupture.
Reason: The rupture of liver cells releases a toxic crystalline substance called haemozoin, which
directly triggers the immune response every 24 to 48 hours.
34.Identify the correct statements regarding the hosts involved in the life cycle of Plasmodium
from the options below:
I. The malarial parasite requires a single host (human) to complete its sexual and asexual life
cycle, while the mosquito only acts as a physical vector.
II. The female Anopheles mosquito serves both as a vector (transmitting agent) and as a host
where crucial developmental stages of the parasite occur.
III. The sexual stages (gametocytes) of Plasmodium develop in the human host, but fertilization
occurs within the mosquito host.
IV. Sporozoites are formed and stored in the liver cells of the human host before being
transferred to the mosquito.
from the options below:
I. The malarial parasite requires a single host (human) to complete its sexual and asexual life
cycle, while the mosquito only acts as a physical vector.
II. The female Anopheles mosquito serves both as a vector (transmitting agent) and as a host
where crucial developmental stages of the parasite occur.
III. The sexual stages (gametocytes) of Plasmodium develop in the human host, but fertilization
occurs within the mosquito host.
IV. Sporozoites are formed and stored in the liver cells of the human host before being
transferred to the mosquito.
35.Assertion: The infectious stage of Plasmodium, known as the sporozoite, is stored within
the salivary glands of the female Anopheles mosquito.
Reason: Fertilization and sexual development of the malarial parasite take place within the
salivary glands of the mosquito host.
the salivary glands of the female Anopheles mosquito.
Reason: Fertilization and sexual development of the malarial parasite take place within the
salivary glands of the mosquito host.
36.Which of the following represents the correct chronological sequence of events after
infective sporozoites of Plasmodium are introduced into a healthy human body?
1. Rupture of Red Blood Cells
2. Attack on Red Blood Cells
3. Multiplication within liver cells
4. Release of toxic haemozoin
5. Recurrence of chills and high fever
infective sporozoites of Plasmodium are introduced into a healthy human body?
1. Rupture of Red Blood Cells
2. Attack on Red Blood Cells
3. Multiplication within liver cells
4. Release of toxic haemozoin
5. Recurrence of chills and high fever
37.Assertion: B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes of the human host are directly attacked and
ruptured by the reproducing asexual stages of Plasmodium, leading to immunosuppression.
Reason: The sexual stages (gametocytes) of Plasmodium develop within the liver cells of the
human host before entering the mosquito's salivary glands.
ruptured by the reproducing asexual stages of Plasmodium, leading to immunosuppression.
Reason: The sexual stages (gametocytes) of Plasmodium develop within the liver cells of the
human host before entering the mosquito's salivary glands.
38.Select the correct pairing of the Plasmodium life cycle stage with its corresponding target
or host, as described in the NCERT text and Figure 7.1:
Statement I: Sporozoites are the infectious form for the human host, introduced via the bite of
the female Anopheles vector.
Statement II: Gametocytes are the infectious form for the mosquito vector, taken up from the
infected human host during a blood meal.
Statement III: Fertilization of gametocytes and development of the parasite to form mature
sporozoites occur completely within the salivary glands of the mosquito.
or host, as described in the NCERT text and Figure 7.1:
Statement I: Sporozoites are the infectious form for the human host, introduced via the bite of
the female Anopheles vector.
Statement II: Gametocytes are the infectious form for the mosquito vector, taken up from the
infected human host during a blood meal.
Statement III: Fertilization of gametocytes and development of the parasite to form mature
sporozoites occur completely within the salivary glands of the mosquito.
39.Assertion: Among the different species of Plasmodium, malignant malaria caused by
Plasmodium vivax is the most serious and fatal form of the disease.
Reason: Plasmodium falciparum causes benign tertian malaria, which is characterized by mild
symptoms and requires no clinical treatment.
Plasmodium vivax is the most serious and fatal form of the disease.
Reason: Plasmodium falciparum causes benign tertian malaria, which is characterized by mild
symptoms and requires no clinical treatment.
40.Read the following statements regarding the clinical symptoms of malaria and select the
correct option:
Statement A: The release of haemozoin, a toxic substance, occurs when the malarial parasite
multiplies within the liver cells causing their simultaneous rupture.
Statement B: The chill and high fever associated with malaria typically recur every 3 to 4 days
due to the periodic rupture of infected erythrocytes and release of haemozoin.
correct option:
Statement A: The release of haemozoin, a toxic substance, occurs when the malarial parasite
multiplies within the liver cells causing their simultaneous rupture.
Statement B: The chill and high fever associated with malaria typically recur every 3 to 4 days
due to the periodic rupture of infected erythrocytes and release of haemozoin.
41.Assertion: Both male and female Anopheles mosquitoes can act as transmitting vectors for
Plasmodium because both require human blood to complete their reproductive cycles.
Reason: The salivary glands of both male and female Anopheles mosquitoes store mature
sporozoites, which are injected during a bite.
Plasmodium because both require human blood to complete their reproductive cycles.
Reason: The salivary glands of both male and female Anopheles mosquitoes store mature
sporozoites, which are injected during a bite.
42.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the biological relationship
between Plasmodium and its hosts?
I. The complete sexual development, fertilization, and formation of mature sporozoites occur in
the human host, making humans the definitive host.
II. The asexual multiplication of the parasite occurs in both the liver cells and red blood cells of
the human host.
III. The female Anopheles mosquito acts only as a passive mechanical carrier, similar to the role
of houseflies in amoebiasis.
between Plasmodium and its hosts?
I. The complete sexual development, fertilization, and formation of mature sporozoites occur in
the human host, making humans the definitive host.
II. The asexual multiplication of the parasite occurs in both the liver cells and red blood cells of
the human host.
III. The female Anopheles mosquito acts only as a passive mechanical carrier, similar to the role
of houseflies in amoebiasis.
43.Assertion: In the female Anopheles mosquito, the fertilization of Plasmodium gametocytes
occurs inside the salivary glands, followed by migration of zygotes to the gut wall for sporozoite
formation.
Reason: Mature infective sporozoites escape from the salivary glands and are stored in the
mosquito's stomach/gut until the next blood meal.
occurs inside the salivary glands, followed by migration of zygotes to the gut wall for sporozoite
formation.
Reason: Mature infective sporozoites escape from the salivary glands and are stored in the
mosquito's stomach/gut until the next blood meal.
44.Based on the NCERT account of the Plasmodium life cycle, which of the following
statements is/are incorrect?
I. The parasite enters the mosquito’s body as sporozoites when a female Anopheles mosquito
bites an infected human.
II. The parasite enters the human body as sporozoites when an infected female Anopheles
mosquito bites a human.
III. The sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in the red blood cells of the human host.
statements is/are incorrect?
I. The parasite enters the mosquito’s body as sporozoites when a female Anopheles mosquito
bites an infected human.
II. The parasite enters the human body as sporozoites when an infected female Anopheles
mosquito bites a human.
III. The sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in the red blood cells of the human host.
45.Assertion: Plasmodium is considered a digenetic parasite that cannot complete its life cycle
if either the human host or the female Anopheles mosquito vector is completely absent from its
environment.
Reason: Asexual multiplication occurs exclusively in the human host's liver cells and red blood
cells, whereas sexual reproduction (fertilization and development) is restricted to the mosquito
vector.
if either the human host or the female Anopheles mosquito vector is completely absent from its
environment.
Reason: Asexual multiplication occurs exclusively in the human host's liver cells and red blood
cells, whereas sexual reproduction (fertilization and development) is restricted to the mosquito
vector.
46.Assertion: Entamoeba histolytica is a pathogenic helminthic parasite residing in the small
intestine of humans that causes amoebiasis.
Reason: The primary symptoms of amoebiasis include sustained high fever (39° to 40°C),
extreme weakness, and rose spots on the abdomen.
intestine of humans that causes amoebiasis.
Reason: The primary symptoms of amoebiasis include sustained high fever (39° to 40°C),
extreme weakness, and rose spots on the abdomen.
47.A patient presents to a clinic with the following gastrointestinal complaints:
1. Constipation
2. Abdominal pain and cramps
3. Stools with excess mucous and blood clots
4. Internal bleeding and muscular pain
Which of these symptoms are diagnostic features of amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery) as per the
NCERT textbook?
1. Constipation
2. Abdominal pain and cramps
3. Stools with excess mucous and blood clots
4. Internal bleeding and muscular pain
Which of these symptoms are diagnostic features of amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery) as per the
NCERT textbook?
48.Assertion: Female Anopheles mosquitoes serve as the primary mechanical carriers of
Entamoeba histolytica, active in transmitting the pathogen to food items.
Reason: Houseflies act as biological vectors because Entamoeba histolytica must complete the
sexual phase of its life cycle within the fly's salivary glands.
Entamoeba histolytica, active in transmitting the pathogen to food items.
Reason: Houseflies act as biological vectors because Entamoeba histolytica must complete the
sexual phase of its life cycle within the fly's salivary glands.
49.Read the following statements regarding the transmission of amoebiasis and select the
correct option:
Statement I: Drinking water and food contaminated by the faecal matter of an infected person
are the main sources of Entamoeba histolytica infection in healthy individuals.
Statement II: Houseflies act as mechanical carriers by transmitting the parasite directly from
the blood of an infected host to the food products of a healthy host.
correct option:
Statement I: Drinking water and food contaminated by the faecal matter of an infected person
are the main sources of Entamoeba histolytica infection in healthy individuals.
Statement II: Houseflies act as mechanical carriers by transmitting the parasite directly from
the blood of an infected host to the food products of a healthy host.
50.Assertion: Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite that causes morphological and
functional damage in the small intestine of humans.
Reason: The pathogen is highly adapted to survive the low pH and various digestive enzymes of
the human large intestine.
functional damage in the small intestine of humans.
Reason: The pathogen is highly adapted to survive the low pH and various digestive enzymes of
the human large intestine.
51.Assertion: Ascaris, commonly known as the filarial worm, is an intestinal protozoan
parasite that causes severe inflammation of the lower limbs.
Reason: The symptoms of ascariasis include constipation, excess mucus and blood clots in the
stool, and gross deformities of the genital organs.
parasite that causes severe inflammation of the lower limbs.
Reason: The symptoms of ascariasis include constipation, excess mucus and blood clots in the
stool, and gross deformities of the genital organs.
52.Consider the following statements regarding the transmission and acquisition of ascariasis
in humans:
Statement I: The eggs of the parasite Ascaris are excreted along with the faeces of infected
persons, thereby contaminating soil, water, and plants.
Statement II: A healthy person acquires the infection of Ascaris through the bite of an infected
female mosquito vector that has fed on contaminated soil.
in humans:
Statement I: The eggs of the parasite Ascaris are excreted along with the faeces of infected
persons, thereby contaminating soil, water, and plants.
Statement II: A healthy person acquires the infection of Ascaris through the bite of an infected
female mosquito vector that has fed on contaminated soil.
53.Which of the following clinical features are specifically associated with an infection of the
helminthic parasite Ascaris as per NCERT?
I. Blockage of the intestinal passage
II. Anemia and internal bleeding
III. Chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels
IV. Muscular pain and fever
helminthic parasite Ascaris as per NCERT?
I. Blockage of the intestinal passage
II. Anemia and internal bleeding
III. Chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels
IV. Muscular pain and fever
54.Assertion: Public hygiene measures such as proper disposal of waste and excreta are highly
effective in controlling the spread of ascariasis in a community.
Reason: Ascaris is an intestinal parasite whose infective eggs are released directly into the
environment through the faeces of infected individuals.
effective in controlling the spread of ascariasis in a community.
Reason: Ascaris is an intestinal parasite whose infective eggs are released directly into the
environment through the faeces of infected individuals.
55.Assertion: Wuchereria bancrofti causes a rapid, acute inflammation of the blood vessels of
the upper limbs, leading to immediate swelling within a few days of mosquito bite.
Reason: The filarial worm is a protozoan parasite that completes its life cycle inside the blood-
filled cavities of the human liver.
the upper limbs, leading to immediate swelling within a few days of mosquito bite.
Reason: The filarial worm is a protozoan parasite that completes its life cycle inside the blood-
filled cavities of the human liver.
56.Read the following statements regarding filariasis (elephantiasis) and select the correct
option:
Statement I: The disease is characterized by slowly developing chronic inflammation of
lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and can also affect the genital organs, resulting in gross
deformities.
Statement II: The filarial pathogen is transmitted from an infected person to a healthy
individual through the mechanical carriage by houseflies.
option:
Statement I: The disease is characterized by slowly developing chronic inflammation of
lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and can also affect the genital organs, resulting in gross
deformities.
Statement II: The filarial pathogen is transmitted from an infected person to a healthy
individual through the mechanical carriage by houseflies.
57.Assertion: Both Wuchereria bancrofti and Wuchereria malayi are filarial helminths that
rely on female mosquito vectors for transmission to a healthy human host.
Reason: The primary vector for the transmission of filariasis is the male Anopheles mosquito,
which spreads the microfilariae during nectar feeding.
rely on female mosquito vectors for transmission to a healthy human host.
Reason: The primary vector for the transmission of filariasis is the male Anopheles mosquito,
which spreads the microfilariae during nectar feeding.
58.Assertion: Ringworm is one of the most common infectious bacterial diseases in humans,
characterized by wet, mucosal ulcerations on the body folds.
Reason: The disease is caused by pathogenic fungi belonging to the three genera: Microsporum,
Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton.
characterized by wet, mucosal ulcerations on the body folds.
Reason: The disease is caused by pathogenic fungi belonging to the three genera: Microsporum,
Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton.
59.Identify the environmental conditions and anatomical sites that promote the growth of
ringworm-causing fungi as stated in the NCERT textbook:
Statement I: Cold and dry environmental conditions stimulate the rapid spore germination of
Microsporum on exposed smooth surfaces of the skin.
Statement II: Heat and moisture help these fungi to grow, allowing them to thrive in skin folds
such as those in the groin or between the toes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
ringworm-causing fungi as stated in the NCERT textbook:
Statement I: Cold and dry environmental conditions stimulate the rapid spore germination of
Microsporum on exposed smooth surfaces of the skin.
Statement II: Heat and moisture help these fungi to grow, allowing them to thrive in skin folds
such as those in the groin or between the toes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
60.Assertion: Ringworms are generally considered highly non-infectious because they are
strictly inherited as genetic disorders from parents to offspring.
Reason: The fungal pathogens causing ringworms are acquired only from contaminated deep
well water or through the bite of female mosquito vectors.
strictly inherited as genetic disorders from parents to offspring.
Reason: The fungal pathogens causing ringworms are acquired only from contaminated deep
well water or through the bite of female mosquito vectors.
61.Hygiene measures are strictly tailored to the specific mode of transmission of pathogens.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, cesspools, and tanks
are public hygiene measures particularly essential for controlling air-borne infections like
pneumonia and common cold.
Statement II: Avoiding close contact with infected persons or their belongings is a
supplementary measure specifically required for preventing food and water-borne diseases like
typhoid and amoebiasis.
Statement III: Standard practices of hygiene in public catering are classified under public
hygiene, whereas keeping the body clean and consuming clean drinking water are classified
under personal hygiene.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, cesspools, and tanks
are public hygiene measures particularly essential for controlling air-borne infections like
pneumonia and common cold.
Statement II: Avoiding close contact with infected persons or their belongings is a
supplementary measure specifically required for preventing food and water-borne diseases like
typhoid and amoebiasis.
Statement III: Standard practices of hygiene in public catering are classified under public
hygiene, whereas keeping the body clean and consuming clean drinking water are classified
under personal hygiene.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
62.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: Introducing the fish Gambusia into ponds serves as a highly effective biological
vector control measure to prevent vector-borne diseases like malaria and filariasis.
Reason: Gambusia is a predatory fish introduced into ponds to feed directly on mature adult
female Anopheles mosquitoes, which eliminates the biting vector population.
Assertion: Introducing the fish Gambusia into ponds serves as a highly effective biological
vector control measure to prevent vector-borne diseases like malaria and filariasis.
Reason: Gambusia is a predatory fish introduced into ponds to feed directly on mature adult
female Anopheles mosquitoes, which eliminates the biting vector population.
63.Vector control measures are highly vector-specific. With reference to the vector
associations described in the NCERT textbook, consider the following statements:
Statement I: Dengue and chikungunya are vector-borne diseases transmitted by Aedes
mosquitoes in many parts of India.
Statement II: The pathogens of malaria are transmitted through the bite of the infected female
Anopheles mosquito, which serves as the vector.
Statement III: The filarial worm pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person through the bite
of male mosquito vectors.
Which of the following represents the correct status of these statements?
associations described in the NCERT textbook, consider the following statements:
Statement I: Dengue and chikungunya are vector-borne diseases transmitted by Aedes
mosquitoes in many parts of India.
Statement II: The pathogens of malaria are transmitted through the bite of the infected female
Anopheles mosquito, which serves as the vector.
Statement III: The filarial worm pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person through the bite
of male mosquito vectors.
Which of the following represents the correct status of these statements?
64.The transmission and prevention of helminthic infections require specific hygiene
interventions. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: A healthy person acquires ascariasis infection primarily through the bite of a
mechanical insect vector that breeds in stagnant water.
Statement II: Ascariasis is an infection transmitted through food and water contaminated by the
eggs of the parasite excreted along with the faeces of infected persons.
Statement III: Personal and public hygiene measures are particularly essential for preventing
and controlling ascariasis.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
interventions. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: A healthy person acquires ascariasis infection primarily through the bite of a
mechanical insect vector that breeds in stagnant water.
Statement II: Ascariasis is an infection transmitted through food and water contaminated by the
eggs of the parasite excreted along with the faeces of infected persons.
Statement III: Personal and public hygiene measures are particularly essential for preventing
and controlling ascariasis.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
65.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: Control or elimination of vectors and their breeding places is the most important
preventive measure for diseases like malaria and filariasis.
Reason: The pathogens of malaria are transmitted by female Anopheles, whereas the pathogens
of filariasis are transmitted specifically by female Aedes mosquitoes.
Assertion: Control or elimination of vectors and their breeding places is the most important
preventive measure for diseases like malaria and filariasis.
Reason: The pathogens of malaria are transmitted by female Anopheles, whereas the pathogens
of filariasis are transmitted specifically by female Aedes mosquitoes.
66.The environmental control of vectors requires a targeted approach to their breeding
grounds. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Avoiding stagnation of water in and around residential areas is a key physical
vector control measure.
Statement II: Regular cleaning of household coolers is recommended to eliminate potential
breeding sites of vector mosquitoes.
Statement III: Vector-borne diseases like dengue and chikungunya are transmitted by Aedes
mosquitoes, making these precautions highly critical in many parts of India.
Which of the following options is correct?
grounds. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Avoiding stagnation of water in and around residential areas is a key physical
vector control measure.
Statement II: Regular cleaning of household coolers is recommended to eliminate potential
breeding sites of vector mosquitoes.
Statement III: Vector-borne diseases like dengue and chikungunya are transmitted by Aedes
mosquitoes, making these precautions highly critical in many parts of India.
Which of the following options is correct?
67.Based strictly on the NCERT textbook, various hygiene measures are categorized into
personal and public hygiene. Consider the following measures:
I. Proper disposal of waste and excreta.
II. Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, cesspools, and tanks.
III. Keeping the body clean and consuming clean drinking water, food, vegetables, and fruits.
IV. Observing standard practices of hygiene in public catering.
Which of the following options correctly represents only the measures classified under "Public
Hygiene"?
personal and public hygiene. Consider the following measures:
I. Proper disposal of waste and excreta.
II. Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, cesspools, and tanks.
III. Keeping the body clean and consuming clean drinking water, food, vegetables, and fruits.
IV. Observing standard practices of hygiene in public catering.
Which of the following options correctly represents only the measures classified under "Public
Hygiene"?
68.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: Maintenance of personal and public hygiene is the primary and most essential
preventive measure against diseases like typhoid, amoebiasis, and ascariasis.
Reason: The pathogens of typhoid, amoebiasis, and ascariasis are all transmitted through the
bites of mechanical insect vectors that multiply in contaminated food and water.
Assertion: Maintenance of personal and public hygiene is the primary and most essential
preventive measure against diseases like typhoid, amoebiasis, and ascariasis.
Reason: The pathogens of typhoid, amoebiasis, and ascariasis are all transmitted through the
bites of mechanical insect vectors that multiply in contaminated food and water.
69.Vector control strategies utilize physical, biological, and chemical interventions. Consider
the following statements:
Statement I: Spraying of insecticides is recommended specifically in household coolers, whereas
introducing Gambusia fish is done in swamps and ditches.
Statement II: Houseflies serve as biological vectors that actively bite and introduce the
pathogens of amoebiasis directly into the human bloodstream.
Statement III: Doors and windows provided with wire mesh represent a physical barrier
designed to prevent the entry of mosquitoes into residential areas.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
the following statements:
Statement I: Spraying of insecticides is recommended specifically in household coolers, whereas
introducing Gambusia fish is done in swamps and ditches.
Statement II: Houseflies serve as biological vectors that actively bite and introduce the
pathogens of amoebiasis directly into the human bloodstream.
Statement III: Doors and windows provided with wire mesh represent a physical barrier
designed to prevent the entry of mosquitoes into residential areas.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
70.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: In addition to public hygiene, avoiding close contact with infected persons or their
belongings is highly recommended for preventing pneumonia and the common cold.
Reason: Both pneumonia and the common cold are air-borne diseases where healthy individuals
acquire infection by inhaling droplets/aerosols released by an infected person or through
contaminated everyday objects.
Assertion: In addition to public hygiene, avoiding close contact with infected persons or their
belongings is highly recommended for preventing pneumonia and the common cold.
Reason: Both pneumonia and the common cold are air-borne diseases where healthy individuals
acquire infection by inhaling droplets/aerosols released by an infected person or through
contaminated everyday objects.
71.Consider the following pairings of diseases and their highly recommended primary
prevention strategies according to the NCERT textbook:
Pair I: Pneumonia and Common Cold — Avoid close contact with infected persons or their
belongings.
Pair II: Typhoid, Amoebiasis, and Ascariasis — Personal and public hygiene measures (clean
food/water, waste disposal, periodic cleaning of reservoirs).
Pair III: Malaria and Filariasis — Control or eliminate vectors and their breeding places.
Which of the pairings are correct?
prevention strategies according to the NCERT textbook:
Pair I: Pneumonia and Common Cold — Avoid close contact with infected persons or their
belongings.
Pair II: Typhoid, Amoebiasis, and Ascariasis — Personal and public hygiene measures (clean
food/water, waste disposal, periodic cleaning of reservoirs).
Pair III: Malaria and Filariasis — Control or eliminate vectors and their breeding places.
Which of the pairings are correct?
72.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: Precautions like regular cleaning of household coolers and avoiding water stagnation
in residential areas have become extremely critical in many parts of India.
Reason: Recent years have seen widespread incidences of vector-borne diseases like malaria and
filariasis, which are transmitted specifically by Aedes mosquitoes.
Assertion: Precautions like regular cleaning of household coolers and avoiding water stagnation
in residential areas have become extremely critical in many parts of India.
Reason: Recent years have seen widespread incidences of vector-borne diseases like malaria and
filariasis, which are transmitted specifically by Aedes mosquitoes.
73.The NCERT textbook describes specific targets and methods for public health measures.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Observing standard practices of hygiene in public catering is classified as a
measure of public hygiene.
Statement II: Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, cesspools, and tanks
are public hygiene measures particularly essential for preventing air-borne infections.
Statement III: Typhoid, amoebiasis, and ascariasis are all infections where the causative
pathogens are transmitted through food and water.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Observing standard practices of hygiene in public catering is classified as a
measure of public hygiene.
Statement II: Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, cesspools, and tanks
are public hygiene measures particularly essential for preventing air-borne infections.
Statement III: Typhoid, amoebiasis, and ascariasis are all infections where the causative
pathogens are transmitted through food and water.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
74.Consider the following statements regarding the vector control interventions listed in the
NCERT textbook:
Statement I: Introducing Gambusia fish in ponds is a biological method because these fish feed
directly on adult mosquito vectors.
Statement II: Spraying of insecticides in ditches, drainage areas, and swamps is a chemical
method to eliminate vectors and their breeding places.
Statement III: Providing doors and windows with wire mesh is a physical barrier designed to
prevent the entry of mosquitoes into residential areas.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
NCERT textbook:
Statement I: Introducing Gambusia fish in ponds is a biological method because these fish feed
directly on adult mosquito vectors.
Statement II: Spraying of insecticides in ditches, drainage areas, and swamps is a chemical
method to eliminate vectors and their breeding places.
Statement III: Providing doors and windows with wire mesh is a physical barrier designed to
prevent the entry of mosquitoes into residential areas.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
75.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: Spraying of insecticides in ditches, drainage areas, and swamps is a public measure
used to control the mosquito vectors of malaria and filariasis.
Reason: The sporozoites of malaria and the larvae of filarial worms complete their life cycle
stages directly in the stagnant water of these ditches and swamps before infecting human hosts.
Assertion: Spraying of insecticides in ditches, drainage areas, and swamps is a public measure
used to control the mosquito vectors of malaria and filariasis.
Reason: The sporozoites of malaria and the larvae of filarial worms complete their life cycle
stages directly in the stagnant water of these ditches and swamps before infecting human hosts.
76.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: While the deadly disease smallpox has been completely eradicated, diseases like polio,
diphtheria, pneumonia, and tetanus have only been controlled to a large extent by the use of
vaccines.
Reason: Eradication of a disease implies controlling its incidence to a large extent, whereas
control implies the absolute elimination of the pathogen from the face of the Earth.
Assertion: While the deadly disease smallpox has been completely eradicated, diseases like polio,
diphtheria, pneumonia, and tetanus have only been controlled to a large extent by the use of
vaccines.
Reason: Eradication of a disease implies controlling its incidence to a large extent, whereas
control implies the absolute elimination of the pathogen from the face of the Earth.
77.The advancements in biological science have armed us to deal with infectious diseases.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Polio, diphtheria, pneumonia, and tetanus are infectious diseases that have been
controlled to a large extent by the use of vaccines.
Statement II: Typhoid, amoebiasis, and malaria have been completely eradicated from India
through biotechnology-derived vaccines.
Statement III: Smallpox was completely eradicated using a combination of antibiotic therapy
and vector control measures.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Polio, diphtheria, pneumonia, and tetanus are infectious diseases that have been
controlled to a large extent by the use of vaccines.
Statement II: Typhoid, amoebiasis, and malaria have been completely eradicated from India
through biotechnology-derived vaccines.
Statement III: Smallpox was completely eradicated using a combination of antibiotic therapy
and vector control measures.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
78.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: Biotechnology is at the verge of making available newer and safer vaccines for public
immunisation.
Reason: Recombinant DNA technology allows the large-scale production of antigenic
polypeptides of pathogens in systems like bacteria or yeast, increasing vaccine availability.
Assertion: Biotechnology is at the verge of making available newer and safer vaccines for public
immunisation.
Reason: Recombinant DNA technology allows the large-scale production of antigenic
polypeptides of pathogens in systems like bacteria or yeast, increasing vaccine availability.
79.According to the introductory text of Unit VIII and Chapter 7, consider the following
statements:
Statement I: The discovery of antibiotics, synthetic plant-derived drugs, and anaesthetics has
dramatically changed medical practice and human life expectancy.
Statement II: The advancements in biological science have enabled the treatment of infectious
diseases primarily through the use of vaccines as the sole curative agent.
Statement III: Life expectancy of human beings has remained largely unchanged despite the
discovery of antibiotics and drugs.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
statements:
Statement I: The discovery of antibiotics, synthetic plant-derived drugs, and anaesthetics has
dramatically changed medical practice and human life expectancy.
Statement II: The advancements in biological science have enabled the treatment of infectious
diseases primarily through the use of vaccines as the sole curative agent.
Statement III: Life expectancy of human beings has remained largely unchanged despite the
discovery of antibiotics and drugs.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
80.Diseases controlled by vaccines include both bacterial and viral pathogens. Consider the
following statements:
Statement I: Pneumonia and diphtheria are bacterial diseases that have been controlled to a
large extent by the use of vaccines.
Statement II: Tetanus and polio are also among the infectious diseases controlled to a large
extent using immunisation programmes.
Statement III: Smallpox is a bacterial disease that has been successfully treated using antibiotics
rather than vaccination.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
following statements:
Statement I: Pneumonia and diphtheria are bacterial diseases that have been controlled to a
large extent by the use of vaccines.
Statement II: Tetanus and polio are also among the infectious diseases controlled to a large
extent using immunisation programmes.
Statement III: Smallpox is a bacterial disease that has been successfully treated using antibiotics
rather than vaccination.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
81.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: The demonstration of normal body temperature in persons with blackbile using a
thermometer helped disprove the 'good humor' hypothesis of health.
Reason: William Harvey discovered blood circulation using the experimental method, showing
that individuals with blackbile did not have elevated temperatures.
Assertion: The demonstration of normal body temperature in persons with blackbile using a
thermometer helped disprove the 'good humor' hypothesis of health.
Reason: William Harvey discovered blood circulation using the experimental method, showing
that individuals with blackbile did not have elevated temperatures.
82.The NCERT textbook highlights major milestones in Indian agriculture. Consider the
following statements regarding the contributions of M.S. Swaminathan:
Statement I: He developed short-duration high-yielding varieties of wheat, including scented
Basmati.
Statement II: His collaboration with Norman Borlaug culminated in the 'Green Revolution'
through the introduction of Mexican varieties of rice in India.
Statement III: He is known for developing the concepts of crop cafeteria, crop scheduling, and
initiating the 'Lab-to-Land' and food security programmes.
Which of the following options is correct?
following statements regarding the contributions of M.S. Swaminathan:
Statement I: He developed short-duration high-yielding varieties of wheat, including scented
Basmati.
Statement II: His collaboration with Norman Borlaug culminated in the 'Green Revolution'
through the introduction of Mexican varieties of rice in India.
Statement III: He is known for developing the concepts of crop cafeteria, crop scheduling, and
initiating the 'Lab-to-Land' and food security programmes.
Which of the following options is correct?
83.According to the NCERT textbook, health is affected by genetic disorders, infections, and
lifestyle. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Genetic disorders include deficiencies with which a child is born and those
inherited from parents from birth.
Statement II: Lifestyle factors affecting health are restricted exclusively to the habits we have or
lack, excluding physical factors like rest and exercise.
Statement III: Infections are categorized as a lifestyle factor since their onset depends entirely
on the food and water we consume.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
lifestyle. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Genetic disorders include deficiencies with which a child is born and those
inherited from parents from birth.
Statement II: Lifestyle factors affecting health are restricted exclusively to the habits we have or
lack, excluding physical factors like rest and exercise.
Statement III: Infections are categorized as a lifestyle factor since their onset depends entirely
on the food and water we consume.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
84.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: Mind and mental state can significantly affect our physical health.
Reason: The mind influences our immune system through the neural and endocrine systems,
and the immune system in turn maintains our health.
Assertion: Mind and mental state can significantly affect our physical health.
Reason: The mind influences our immune system through the neural and endocrine systems,
and the immune system in turn maintains our health.
85.Consider the following statements regarding the definition and benefits of health as
described in the NCERT textbook:
Statement I: Health does not simply mean 'absence of disease' or 'physical fitness', but is
defined as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being.
Statement II: When people are healthy, their efficiency at work increases, which increases
productivity and brings economic prosperity.
Statement III: Good health increases longevity of people and reduces infant and maternal
mortality.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
described in the NCERT textbook:
Statement I: Health does not simply mean 'absence of disease' or 'physical fitness', but is
defined as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being.
Statement II: When people are healthy, their efficiency at work increases, which increases
productivity and brings economic prosperity.
Statement III: Good health increases longevity of people and reduces infant and maternal
mortality.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
86.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: The overall ability of the host to fight disease-causing organisms, conferred by the
immune system, is called immunity.
Reason: This immunity is categorized into innate and acquired, both of which are pathogen-
specific and characterized by immunological memory.
Assertion: The overall ability of the host to fight disease-causing organisms, conferred by the
immune system, is called immunity.
Reason: This immunity is categorized into innate and acquired, both of which are pathogen-
specific and characterized by immunological memory.
87.Innate and acquired immunity represent two distinct defense strategies. Consider the
following statements:
Statement I: Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defence that is present from the time of
birth.
Statement II: Acquired immunity is characterized by memory, meaning that the first encounter
with a pathogen produces a highly intensified anamnestic response.
Statement III: Innate immunity achieves its protective role by providing different types of
barriers to the entry of foreign agents into our body.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
following statements:
Statement I: Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defence that is present from the time of
birth.
Statement II: Acquired immunity is characterized by memory, meaning that the first encounter
with a pathogen produces a highly intensified anamnestic response.
Statement III: Innate immunity achieves its protective role by providing different types of
barriers to the entry of foreign agents into our body.
Which of the following options represents the correct status of these statements?
88.Innate immunity relies on distinct barriers to prevent the entry and growth of foreign
agents. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory tract is classified as a
physical barrier that helps trap entering microbes.
Statement II: Acid in the stomach and saliva in the mouth are physiological barriers that
prevent microbial growth.
Statement III: Tears from the eyes represent a physical barrier because they physically wash
away pathogens from the conjunctiva.
Which of the following options is correct?
agents. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory tract is classified as a
physical barrier that helps trap entering microbes.
Statement II: Acid in the stomach and saliva in the mouth are physiological barriers that
prevent microbial growth.
Statement III: Tears from the eyes represent a physical barrier because they physically wash
away pathogens from the conjunctiva.
Which of the following options is correct?
89.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion: Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) and monocytes are cellular
barriers that phagocytose and destroy microbes.
Reason: Interferons are cytokine barriers secreted by virus-infected cells to protect the infected
cells themselves from further replication.
Assertion: Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) and monocytes are cellular
barriers that phagocytose and destroy microbes.
Reason: Interferons are cytokine barriers secreted by virus-infected cells to protect the infected
cells themselves from further replication.
90.With reference to the comparison between innate and acquired immunity, consider the
following statements:
Statement I: Innate immunity is present from birth, is non-specific, and consists of four distinct
types of barriers.
Statement II: Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific, is acquired after birth, and is
characterized by immunological memory.
Statement III: Both innate and acquired immunity are equally capable of eliciting a highly
intensified secondary or anamnestic response upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen.
Which of the following options is correct?
following statements:
Statement I: Innate immunity is present from birth, is non-specific, and consists of four distinct
types of barriers.
Statement II: Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific, is acquired after birth, and is
characterized by immunological memory.
Statement III: Both innate and acquired immunity are equally capable of eliciting a highly
intensified secondary or anamnestic response upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen.
Which of the following options is correct?
91.Identify the correct statements regarding innate immunity:
Statement I: Innate immunity is a pathogen-specific type of defence that is present at the time of
birth.
Statement II: Innate immunity is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the
entry of foreign agents into our body.
Statement III: The host's overall ability to fight disease-causing organisms is conferred by the
immune system and is termed immunity.
Statement I: Innate immunity is a pathogen-specific type of defence that is present at the time of
birth.
Statement II: Innate immunity is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the
entry of foreign agents into our body.
Statement III: The host's overall ability to fight disease-causing organisms is conferred by the
immune system and is termed immunity.
92.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and
urogenital tracts is considered a physical barrier of innate immunity.
Reason (R): The physical barriers of innate immunity act by directly phagocytosing and
destroying the microbes entering our body.
Assertion (A): Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and
urogenital tracts is considered a physical barrier of innate immunity.
Reason (R): The physical barriers of innate immunity act by directly phagocytosing and
destroying the microbes entering our body.
93.Consider the following statements regarding the physical barriers of innate immunity:
Statement I: Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents the entry of micro-organisms.
Statement II: Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and
urogenital tracts helps in trapping microbes entering our body.
Statement III: The mucus-secreting cells represent a physiological barrier because they secrete
chemicals to alter the pH of the tracts.
Statement I: Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents the entry of micro-organisms.
Statement II: Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and
urogenital tracts helps in trapping microbes entering our body.
Statement III: The mucus-secreting cells represent a physiological barrier because they secrete
chemicals to alter the pH of the tracts.
94.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, and tears from eyes prevent microbial
growth in our body.
Reason (R): These secretions are classified as physiological barriers of innate immunity.
Assertion (A): Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, and tears from eyes prevent microbial
growth in our body.
Reason (R): These secretions are classified as physiological barriers of innate immunity.
95.Evaluate the following pairings of innate immunity barriers and their components:
1. Saliva in mouth - Physiological barrier
2. Macrophages in tissues - Physical barrier
3. Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) - Cellular barrier
4. Mucus coating of urogenital tract - Physical barrier
5. Interferons - Cytokine barrier
Which of the matchings are correct?
1. Saliva in mouth - Physiological barrier
2. Macrophages in tissues - Physical barrier
3. Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) - Cellular barrier
4. Mucus coating of urogenital tract - Physical barrier
5. Interferons - Cytokine barrier
Which of the matchings are correct?
96.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) and monocytes are
components of the cellular barriers of innate immunity.
Reason (R): PMNL-neutrophils and monocytes are specialized erythrocytes that can
phagocytose and destroy microbes.
Assertion (A): Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) and monocytes are
components of the cellular barriers of innate immunity.
Reason (R): PMNL-neutrophils and monocytes are specialized erythrocytes that can
phagocytose and destroy microbes.
97.Identify the correct statements regarding the cellular barriers of innate immunity based on
NCERT:
Statement I: Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) are a type of leukocyte
(WBC) involved in innate immunity.
Statement II: Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte present in tissues that phagocytose
microbes.
Statement III: Macrophages are phagocytic components present in the blood.
Statement IV: Monocytes are phagocytic leukocytes present in the blood.
NCERT:
Statement I: Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) are a type of leukocyte
(WBC) involved in innate immunity.
Statement II: Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte present in tissues that phagocytose
microbes.
Statement III: Macrophages are phagocytic components present in the blood.
Statement IV: Monocytes are phagocytic leukocytes present in the blood.
98.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Interferons are proteins secreted by virus-infected cells to protect the infected
cells themselves from further viral replication.
Reason (R): Interferons act as a cytokine barrier of innate immunity by protecting non-infected
cells from further viral infection.
Assertion (A): Interferons are proteins secreted by virus-infected cells to protect the infected
cells themselves from further viral replication.
Reason (R): Interferons act as a cytokine barrier of innate immunity by protecting non-infected
cells from further viral infection.
99.Consider the following statements regarding the barriers of innate immunity:
Statement I: PMNL-neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages are all capable of phagocytosis.
Statement II: Interferons are cytokine barriers that are produced by non-infected cells to
prevent viruses from entering them.
Statement III: Saliva in the mouth and tears from the eyes prevent microbial growth, acting as
physiological barriers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement I: PMNL-neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages are all capable of phagocytosis.
Statement II: Interferons are cytokine barriers that are produced by non-infected cells to
prevent viruses from entering them.
Statement III: Saliva in the mouth and tears from the eyes prevent microbial growth, acting as
physiological barriers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
100.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Saliva in the mouth and tears from the eyes prevent microbial growth, serving as
physical barriers of our body.
Reason (R): Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defence present at the time of birth.
Assertion (A): Saliva in the mouth and tears from the eyes prevent microbial growth, serving as
physical barriers of our body.
Reason (R): Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defence present at the time of birth.
101.Evaluate the following statements based on the barriers of innate immunity:
Statement I: Skin and mucus coating of the epithelium lining urogenital tract prevent entry of
microbes as physical barriers.
Statement II: PMNL-neutrophils and monocytes are cellular barriers found in blood, whereas
macrophages are cellular barriers found in tissues.
Statement III: Acid in stomach, saliva in mouth, and tears from eyes prevent microbial growth
and represent physiological barriers.
Statement IV: Interferons are cytokine barriers that are lipid molecules secreted by virus-
infected cells.
Which of the statements are correct?
Statement I: Skin and mucus coating of the epithelium lining urogenital tract prevent entry of
microbes as physical barriers.
Statement II: PMNL-neutrophils and monocytes are cellular barriers found in blood, whereas
macrophages are cellular barriers found in tissues.
Statement III: Acid in stomach, saliva in mouth, and tears from eyes prevent microbial growth
and represent physiological barriers.
Statement IV: Interferons are cytokine barriers that are lipid molecules secreted by virus-
infected cells.
Which of the statements are correct?
102.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and
urogenital tracts helps in trapping microbes entering our body.
Reason (R): This mucus coating, along with the skin on our body, constitutes the physical
barriers of innate immunity.
Assertion (A): Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and
urogenital tracts helps in trapping microbes entering our body.
Reason (R): This mucus coating, along with the skin on our body, constitutes the physical
barriers of innate immunity.
103.Which of the following is/are correct regarding the cellular components of innate
immunity described in NCERT?
1. PMNL stands for Polymorpho-nuclear Lymphocytes.
2. Macrophages in tissues are capable of phagocytosing microbes.
3. Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte present in the blood.
4. Monocytes are a type of leukocyte (WBC) in the blood.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
immunity described in NCERT?
1. PMNL stands for Polymorpho-nuclear Lymphocytes.
2. Macrophages in tissues are capable of phagocytosing microbes.
3. Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte present in the blood.
4. Monocytes are a type of leukocyte (WBC) in the blood.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
104.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Interferons protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
Reason (R): Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons in response to a viral attack.
Assertion (A): Interferons protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
Reason (R): Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons in response to a viral attack.
105.Select the correct statements regarding the four barriers of innate immunity:
Statement I: The skin prevents the entry of micro-organisms, while urogenital tract mucus
coating traps them.
Statement II: Tears from eyes contain proteins called interferons that prevent bacterial growth.
Statement III: Macrophages are cellular barriers found in tissues, and PMNL-neutrophils are
cellular barriers in the blood.
Statement IV: Innate immunity is a pathogen-specific defense system present from birth.
Statement I: The skin prevents the entry of micro-organisms, while urogenital tract mucus
coating traps them.
Statement II: Tears from eyes contain proteins called interferons that prevent bacterial growth.
Statement III: Macrophages are cellular barriers found in tissues, and PMNL-neutrophils are
cellular barriers in the blood.
Statement IV: Innate immunity is a pathogen-specific defense system present from birth.
106.Which of the following statements regarding acquired immunity are correct according to
NCERT?
Statement I: Acquired immunity is non-specific and is characterised by memory.
Statement II: When our body encounters a pathogen for the first time, it produces a low-
intensity primary response.
Statement III: Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified
secondary or anamnestic response.
Statement IV: The secondary response is highly intensified because our body appears to have
memory of the first encounter.
NCERT?
Statement I: Acquired immunity is non-specific and is characterised by memory.
Statement II: When our body encounters a pathogen for the first time, it produces a low-
intensity primary response.
Statement III: Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified
secondary or anamnestic response.
Statement IV: The secondary response is highly intensified because our body appears to have
memory of the first encounter.
107.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The secondary or anamnestic immune response elicited during subsequent
encounters with the same pathogen is highly intensified.
Reason (R): Our body appears to have memory of the first encounter with that specific
pathogen.
Assertion (A): The secondary or anamnestic immune response elicited during subsequent
encounters with the same pathogen is highly intensified.
Reason (R): Our body appears to have memory of the first encounter with that specific
pathogen.
108.Compare primary and secondary immune responses based on NCERT text and identify
the correct statements:
Statement I: The first encounter with a pathogen produces a primary response of high intensity.
Statement II: The secondary response is also known as the anamnestic response.
Statement III: The primary response is of low intensity because it is mediated by T-lymphocytes,
while the secondary response is of high intensity because it is mediated by B-lymphocytes.
Statement IV: The secondary response is a result of the memory of the first encounter.
the correct statements:
Statement I: The first encounter with a pathogen produces a primary response of high intensity.
Statement II: The secondary response is also known as the anamnestic response.
Statement III: The primary response is of low intensity because it is mediated by T-lymphocytes,
while the secondary response is of high intensity because it is mediated by B-lymphocytes.
Statement IV: The secondary response is a result of the memory of the first encounter.
109.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): A child encountering a pathogen for the first time shows a slow and highly
intensified primary immune response.
Reason (R): The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of B-
lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes present in our blood.
Assertion (A): A child encountering a pathogen for the first time shows a slow and highly
intensified primary immune response.
Reason (R): The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of B-
lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes present in our blood.
110.Consider the following statements regarding the cells responsible for acquired immunity:
Statement I: The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of B-
lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
Statement II: These special types of lymphocytes are present in our blood.
Statement III: The B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins called antibodies directly into
the lymph, which then travel to the blood.
Statement I: The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of B-
lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
Statement II: These special types of lymphocytes are present in our blood.
Statement III: The B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins called antibodies directly into
the lymph, which then travel to the blood.
111.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The secondary immune response is also referred to as the anamnestic response.
Reason (R): The anamnestic response is a low-intensity reaction that occurs upon the second
exposure to a different, unrelated pathogen.
Assertion (A): The secondary immune response is also referred to as the anamnestic response.
Reason (R): The anamnestic response is a low-intensity reaction that occurs upon the second
exposure to a different, unrelated pathogen.
112.Which of the following represents the fundamental characteristics of acquired immunity
as per the NCERT text?
1. It is pathogen-specific.
2. It is present from the time of birth.
3. It has the ability to elicit a highly intensified response upon subsequent encounters with the
same pathogen.
4. It is characterized by memory.
Which of the options below is correct?
as per the NCERT text?
1. It is pathogen-specific.
2. It is present from the time of birth.
3. It has the ability to elicit a highly intensified response upon subsequent encounters with the
same pathogen.
4. It is characterized by memory.
Which of the options below is correct?
113.Identify the correct statements regarding the roles of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes
based on NCERT:
Statement I: The B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins called antibodies in response to
pathogens into our blood.
Statement II: The T-lymphocytes themselves secrete an army of different proteins called toxins
into our blood to fight pathogens.
Statement III: The T-cells do not secrete antibodies but help B-cells to produce them.
based on NCERT:
Statement I: The B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins called antibodies in response to
pathogens into our blood.
Statement II: The T-lymphocytes themselves secrete an army of different proteins called toxins
into our blood to fight pathogens.
Statement III: The T-cells do not secrete antibodies but help B-cells to produce them.
114.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): An antibody molecule is structurally represented as H_2L_2.
Reason (R): Each antibody molecule consists of four peptide chains, including two small heavy
chains and two longer light chains.
Assertion (A): An antibody molecule is structurally represented as H_2L_2.
Reason (R): Each antibody molecule consists of four peptide chains, including two small heavy
chains and two longer light chains.
115.Which of the following statements regarding antibodies and humoral immune response
is/are correct according to NCERT?
Statement I: IgA, IgM, IgE, and IgG are some of the different types of antibodies produced in
our body.
Statement II: Because antibodies are found in the blood, the response is also called as the
humoral immune response.
Statement III: Humoral immune response is cell-mediated and does not involve B-lymphocytes.
is/are correct according to NCERT?
Statement I: IgA, IgM, IgE, and IgG are some of the different types of antibodies produced in
our body.
Statement II: Because antibodies are found in the blood, the response is also called as the
humoral immune response.
Statement III: Humoral immune response is cell-mediated and does not involve B-lymphocytes.
116.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The antibody-mediated acquired immune response is also called the humoral
immune response.
Reason (R): The antibodies mediating this response are found circulating in the blood.
Assertion (A): The antibody-mediated acquired immune response is also called the humoral
immune response.
Reason (R): The antibodies mediating this response are found circulating in the blood.
117.Consider the following statements regarding the structure of an antibody molecule:
1. Each antibody molecule contains a total of four peptide chains.
2. The representative formula for an antibody molecule is H_2L_2.
3. The four chains are held together by hydrogen bonds only.
4. IgA, IgM, IgE, IgG, and IgD are all explicitly listed as examples of antibodies in the text of
Section 7.2.2.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. Each antibody molecule contains a total of four peptide chains.
2. The representative formula for an antibody molecule is H_2L_2.
3. The four chains are held together by hydrogen bonds only.
4. IgA, IgM, IgE, IgG, and IgD are all explicitly listed as examples of antibodies in the text of
Section 7.2.2.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
118.Identify the correct statements regarding graft rejection and cell-mediated immunity
(CMI):
Statement I: The T-lymphocytes mediate cell-mediated immunity (CMI).
Statement II: Tissue matching and blood group matching are essential before undertaking any
graft/transplant.
Statement III: The humoral immune response is primarily responsible for the rejection of
grafts/transplants.
Statement IV: Grafts from primates can be accepted without any tissue matching because they
are closely related to humans.
(CMI):
Statement I: The T-lymphocytes mediate cell-mediated immunity (CMI).
Statement II: Tissue matching and blood group matching are essential before undertaking any
graft/transplant.
Statement III: The humoral immune response is primarily responsible for the rejection of
grafts/transplants.
Statement IV: Grafts from primates can be accepted without any tissue matching because they
are closely related to humans.
119.Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Grafts from just any source—an animal, another primate, or any human being—
cannot be transplanted into a patient because they would be rejected sooner or later.
Reason (R): The body is able to differentiate 'self' and 'non-self', and the cell-mediated immune
response is responsible for graft rejection.
Assertion (A): Grafts from just any source—an animal, another primate, or any human being—
cannot be transplanted into a patient because they would be rejected sooner or later.
Reason (R): The body is able to differentiate 'self' and 'non-self', and the cell-mediated immune
response is responsible for graft rejection.
120.Based on the NCERT text regarding organ transplantation, which of the following actions
are essential for a successful graft?
1. Tissue matching before undertaking the transplant.
2. Blood group matching before undertaking the transplant.
3. Taking immunosuppressants during the first month after the transplant only.
4. Ensuring the graft is obtained only from close primates to avoid the need for lifetime
immunosuppression.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
are essential for a successful graft?
1. Tissue matching before undertaking the transplant.
2. Blood group matching before undertaking the transplant.
3. Taking immunosuppressants during the first month after the transplant only.
4. Ensuring the graft is obtained only from close primates to avoid the need for lifetime
immunosuppression.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
121.Assertion (A): Active immunity is characteristically a slow process that requires a
considerable duration of time to develop and exhibit its full effective protective response inside
the host.
Reason (R): Active immunity is initiated only when the host's body is exposed to antigens in the
form of living or dead microbes, or other foreign proteins, leading to endogenous antibody
production.
considerable duration of time to develop and exhibit its full effective protective response inside
the host.
Reason (R): Active immunity is initiated only when the host's body is exposed to antigens in the
form of living or dead microbes, or other foreign proteins, leading to endogenous antibody
production.
122.According to the NCERT textbook, which of the following combinations of statements
regarding active and passive immunity is CORRECT?
I. Active immunity is highly rapid because it uses ready-made antibodies that are directly given
to protect the body.
II. Deliberate injection of microbes during immunisation or infectious organisms gaining access
to the body during natural infection induce active immunity.
III. The transfer of ready-made antibodies from mother to fetus across the placenta represents a
classic example of passive immunity.
IV. Passive immunity has a slow onset because the host's own immune system must recognize
the injected ready-made antibodies as antigens.
regarding active and passive immunity is CORRECT?
I. Active immunity is highly rapid because it uses ready-made antibodies that are directly given
to protect the body.
II. Deliberate injection of microbes during immunisation or infectious organisms gaining access
to the body during natural infection induce active immunity.
III. The transfer of ready-made antibodies from mother to fetus across the placenta represents a
classic example of passive immunity.
IV. Passive immunity has a slow onset because the host's own immune system must recognize
the injected ready-made antibodies as antigens.
123.Assertion (A): Mother's milk secreted during the initial days of lactation contains a
yellowish fluid called colostrum, which is highly essential to protect the newborn infant.
Reason (R): Colostrum has abundant IgE antibodies that immediately activate mast cells in the
infant's gut to initiate local inflammatory protective barriers.
yellowish fluid called colostrum, which is highly essential to protect the newborn infant.
Reason (R): Colostrum has abundant IgE antibodies that immediately activate mast cells in the
infant's gut to initiate local inflammatory protective barriers.
124.Which of the following statements regarding maternal antibody transfer is/are
CORRECT based on the exact text of NCERT?
I. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted during the initial weeks of lactation is rich in IgA
antibodies.
II. The foetus receives some antibodies from their mother through the placenta during
pregnancy.
III. Colostrum and placental antibody transfer are examples of active immunity because they
occur naturally.
IV. The protection provided by colostrum is immediate but temporary, characteristic of passive
immunity.
CORRECT based on the exact text of NCERT?
I. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted during the initial weeks of lactation is rich in IgA
antibodies.
II. The foetus receives some antibodies from their mother through the placenta during
pregnancy.
III. Colostrum and placental antibody transfer are examples of active immunity because they
occur naturally.
IV. The protection provided by colostrum is immediate but temporary, characteristic of passive
immunity.
125.Assertion (A): The transport of antibodies from mother to the developing foetus through
the placenta during pregnancy is classified as passive immunity.
Reason (R): In this transfer, the foetus does not produce these antibodies itself but receives them
ready-made from the mother's circulation.
the placenta during pregnancy is classified as passive immunity.
Reason (R): In this transfer, the foetus does not produce these antibodies itself but receives them
ready-made from the mother's circulation.
126.Based on Chapter 7 of NCERT, which of the following is the CORRECT set of examples
of passive immunity?
I. Yellowish fluid colostrum secreted during initial days of lactation providing IgA to the infant.
II. Delivery of antibodies from mother to foetus through the placenta during pregnancy.
III. Deliberate injection of weakened pathogens into the body during routine immunisation.
IV. Gaining access of infectious pathogens into the body during natural infection.
of passive immunity?
I. Yellowish fluid colostrum secreted during initial days of lactation providing IgA to the infant.
II. Delivery of antibodies from mother to foetus through the placenta during pregnancy.
III. Deliberate injection of weakened pathogens into the body during routine immunisation.
IV. Gaining access of infectious pathogens into the body during natural infection.
127.Assertion (A): Injecting microbes deliberately during immunisation or infectious
organisms gaining access into the body during natural infection both induce active immunity.
Reason (R): In both cases, the host's body is exposed to antigens, which results in the
endogenous production of antibodies by the host's own immune system.
organisms gaining access into the body during natural infection both induce active immunity.
Reason (R): In both cases, the host's body is exposed to antigens, which results in the
endogenous production of antibodies by the host's own immune system.
128.Which of the following pairings of immune barriers or states and their correct NCERT
description is/are CORRECT?
I. Acid in the stomach and saliva in the mouth: Physiological barriers of innate immunity.
II. Yellowish fluid colostrum containing abundant IgA: Passive immunity.
III. PMNL-neutrophils and monocytes in the blood: Physical barriers of innate immunity.
IV. Deliberate injection of ready-made antibodies: Active immunisation.
description is/are CORRECT?
I. Acid in the stomach and saliva in the mouth: Physiological barriers of innate immunity.
II. Yellowish fluid colostrum containing abundant IgA: Passive immunity.
III. PMNL-neutrophils and monocytes in the blood: Physical barriers of innate immunity.
IV. Deliberate injection of ready-made antibodies: Active immunisation.
129.Assertion (A): When quick protection against a highly lethal pathogen or toxin is needed,
passive immunity is preferred over active immunity.
Reason (R): Passive immunity involves the direct administration of preformed ready-made
antibodies, providing an immediate protective response without a developmental time lag.
passive immunity is preferred over active immunity.
Reason (R): Passive immunity involves the direct administration of preformed ready-made
antibodies, providing an immediate protective response without a developmental time lag.
130.Match the following immunological scenarios with their correct classification according
to the NCERT textbook:
I. A person recovering from a natural case of typhoid fever: Active immunity.
II. A child receiving a vaccine containing antigenic proteins of a pathogen: Active immunity.
III. A patient receiving preformed antibodies against tetanus toxin: Passive immunity.
IV. A newborn infant receiving IgA via the mother's milk: Active immunity.
to the NCERT textbook:
I. A person recovering from a natural case of typhoid fever: Active immunity.
II. A child receiving a vaccine containing antigenic proteins of a pathogen: Active immunity.
III. A patient receiving preformed antibodies against tetanus toxin: Passive immunity.
IV. A newborn infant receiving IgA via the mother's milk: Active immunity.
131.Assertion (A): Exposure of the host to dead microbes or isolated microbial proteins
cannot induce active immunity because the pathogen is not alive to replicate.
Reason (R): Active immunity is strictly defined by the host producing antibodies in response to
live pathogens during a natural, symptomatic infection.
cannot induce active immunity because the pathogen is not alive to replicate.
Reason (R): Active immunity is strictly defined by the host producing antibodies in response to
live pathogens during a natural, symptomatic infection.
132.According to NCERT, which of the following is the fundamental distinguishing feature
between active and passive immunity?
I. Active immunity requires the introduction of antibodies, whereas passive immunity requires
the introduction of antigens.
II. In active immunity, the host's own body produces the antibodies, whereas in passive
immunity, ready-made antibodies are directly given.
III. Active immunity provides immediate protection, while passive immunity is slow and takes
time.
IV. Active immunity generates immunological memory, whereas passive immunity does not.
between active and passive immunity?
I. Active immunity requires the introduction of antibodies, whereas passive immunity requires
the introduction of antigens.
II. In active immunity, the host's own body produces the antibodies, whereas in passive
immunity, ready-made antibodies are directly given.
III. Active immunity provides immediate protection, while passive immunity is slow and takes
time.
IV. Active immunity generates immunological memory, whereas passive immunity does not.
133.Assertion (A): Yellowish fluid colostrum contains abundant antibodies of the IgA class
that are essential to protect the newborn infant.
Reason (R): Colostrum is a specialized secretion produced by the infant's own salivary glands in
response to the first feeding of mother's milk.
that are essential to protect the newborn infant.
Reason (R): Colostrum is a specialized secretion produced by the infant's own salivary glands in
response to the first feeding of mother's milk.
134.Based on the NCERT textbook, which of the following statements is/are CORRECT
regarding passive immunity in early human development?
I. The fetus receives maternal antibodies across the placenta during pregnancy.
II. The newborn receives abundant IgA antibodies through the colostrum secreted during
lactation.
III. Both placental and colostrum-mediated protections represent natural active immunity.
IV. These pathways require the newborn's immune system to actively synthesize its own
lymphoid tissues.
regarding passive immunity in early human development?
I. The fetus receives maternal antibodies across the placenta during pregnancy.
II. The newborn receives abundant IgA antibodies through the colostrum secreted during
lactation.
III. Both placental and colostrum-mediated protections represent natural active immunity.
IV. These pathways require the newborn's immune system to actively synthesize its own
lymphoid tissues.
135.Assertion (A): An individual who is kept in a completely sterile environment and never
exposed to any pathogen or foreign protein can still possess a highly functional active immune
response.
Reason (R): Active immunity is an innate type of defence present at the time of birth, which
does not require any prior exposure to foreign antigens.
exposed to any pathogen or foreign protein can still possess a highly functional active immune
response.
Reason (R): Active immunity is an innate type of defence present at the time of birth, which
does not require any prior exposure to foreign antigens.
136.Based on Chapter 7 of NCERT, which of the following statements regarding the principle
of vaccination is/are CORRECT?
I. The principle of vaccination is based on the property of 'memory' of the immune system.
II. A preparation of antigenic proteins of a pathogen or inactivated/weakened pathogen is
introduced into the body.
III. The introduced vaccine antigens directly neutralise the actual pathogens during subsequent
infections.
IV. The primary goal of vaccination is to provide passive immunity through yeast-derived
antibodies.
of vaccination is/are CORRECT?
I. The principle of vaccination is based on the property of 'memory' of the immune system.
II. A preparation of antigenic proteins of a pathogen or inactivated/weakened pathogen is
introduced into the body.
III. The introduced vaccine antigens directly neutralise the actual pathogens during subsequent
infections.
IV. The primary goal of vaccination is to provide passive immunity through yeast-derived
antibodies.
137.Assertion (A): When a vaccinated person is exposed to the actual pathogen during a
subsequent infection, the pre-existing vaccine antigens neutralise the pathogen.
Reason (R): Vaccination introduces a preparation of inactivated or weakened pathogens that
persist in the bloodstream forever to block pathogen binding sites.
subsequent infection, the pre-existing vaccine antigens neutralise the pathogen.
Reason (R): Vaccination introduces a preparation of inactivated or weakened pathogens that
persist in the bloodstream forever to block pathogen binding sites.
138.According to the NCERT textbook, what is the role of memory B and T-cells generated
during vaccination?
I. They recognise the pathogen quickly on subsequent exposure.
II. They overwhelm the invaders with a massive production of antibodies.
III. They directly secrete physical barriers like mucus to trap subsequent pathogens.
IV. They actively digest the cellular barriers of the host to increase antigen presentation.
during vaccination?
I. They recognise the pathogen quickly on subsequent exposure.
II. They overwhelm the invaders with a massive production of antibodies.
III. They directly secrete physical barriers like mucus to trap subsequent pathogens.
IV. They actively digest the cellular barriers of the host to increase antigen presentation.
139.Assertion (A): A vaccinated individual exhibits a highly rapid and massive production of
antibodies upon subsequent exposure to the actual pathogen.
Reason (R): The vaccine generates memory B and T-cells during the primary exposure that
quickly recognise the pathogen on re-exposure.
antibodies upon subsequent exposure to the actual pathogen.
Reason (R): The vaccine generates memory B and T-cells during the primary exposure that
quickly recognise the pathogen on re-exposure.
140.A farmer sustains a deep wound contaminated with rust and soil. According to NCERT,
why must the doctor directly inject preformed antibodies or antitoxin rather than a standard
tetanus vaccine?
I. Tetanus is caused by a highly deadly microbe requiring a quick immune response.
II. A standard vaccine would take too much time to induce active immunity and produce
antibodies endogenously.
III. The antitoxin provides active immunisation that lasts for the rest of the farmer's life.
IV. The injection contains ready-made antigens that directly neutralise the patient's own
lymphocytes.
why must the doctor directly inject preformed antibodies or antitoxin rather than a standard
tetanus vaccine?
I. Tetanus is caused by a highly deadly microbe requiring a quick immune response.
II. A standard vaccine would take too much time to induce active immunity and produce
antibodies endogenously.
III. The antitoxin provides active immunisation that lasts for the rest of the farmer's life.
IV. The injection contains ready-made antigens that directly neutralise the patient's own
lymphocytes.
141.Assertion (A): In tetanus, we need to directly inject the preformed antibodies, or
antitoxin, to save the patient.
Reason (R): An antitoxin is a preparation containing specific inactivated toxoids that stimulate
the patient's B-cells to undergo rapid mitotic division.
antitoxin, to save the patient.
Reason (R): An antitoxin is a preparation containing specific inactivated toxoids that stimulate
the patient's B-cells to undergo rapid mitotic division.
142.Based on Chapter 7 of NCERT, which of the following statements is/are CORRECT
regarding the treatment of snakebites?
I. The injection given to snakebite patients contains preformed antibodies against the snake
venom.
II. The snakebite antivenom injection represents a type of passive immunisation.
III. The snakebite injection contains weakened venom proteins that act as a vaccine to generate
memory B-cells.
IV. The snakebite injection is a form of active immunisation because it triggers a rapid primary
immune response.
regarding the treatment of snakebites?
I. The injection given to snakebite patients contains preformed antibodies against the snake
venom.
II. The snakebite antivenom injection represents a type of passive immunisation.
III. The snakebite injection contains weakened venom proteins that act as a vaccine to generate
memory B-cells.
IV. The snakebite injection is a form of active immunisation because it triggers a rapid primary
immune response.
143.Assertion (A): Injecting preformed antibodies in cases of tetanus and snakebites is
designated as passive immunisation.
Reason (R): In both cases, ready-made antibodies are directly administered to the patient to
achieve immediate neutralisation of the toxin or venom.
designated as passive immunisation.
Reason (R): In both cases, ready-made antibodies are directly administered to the patient to
achieve immediate neutralisation of the toxin or venom.
144.Identify the CORRECT classification of immunisation procedures described in the
NCERT textbook:
I. Hepatitis B vaccine produced from yeast: Active immunisation.
II. Injection containing preformed antibodies against snake venom: Passive immunisation.
III. Delivery of maternal IgA to the infant through colostrum: Passive immunity.
IV. Standard vaccination using preparation of antigenic proteins of a pathogen: Active
immunisation.
NCERT textbook:
I. Hepatitis B vaccine produced from yeast: Active immunisation.
II. Injection containing preformed antibodies against snake venom: Passive immunisation.
III. Delivery of maternal IgA to the infant through colostrum: Passive immunity.
IV. Standard vaccination using preparation of antigenic proteins of a pathogen: Active
immunisation.
145.Assertion (A): Recombinant DNA technology has allowed the large-scale production of
antigenic polypeptides of pathogens for vaccines.
Reason (R): Expressing these genes in bacteria or yeast allows industrial-scale cultivation and
makes vaccines highly available for mass immunisation.
antigenic polypeptides of pathogens for vaccines.
Reason (R): Expressing these genes in bacteria or yeast allows industrial-scale cultivation and
makes vaccines highly available for mass immunisation.
146.Which of the following organisms are explicitly mentioned in the NCERT textbook as
hosts for producing antigenic polypeptides of pathogens using recombinant DNA technology?
I. Yeast
II. Bacteria
III. Viruses
IV. Fungi like Neurospora
hosts for producing antigenic polypeptides of pathogens using recombinant DNA technology?
I. Yeast
II. Bacteria
III. Viruses
IV. Fungi like Neurospora
147.Assertion (A): Hepatitis B vaccine is a classic example of a recombinant vaccine produced
from yeast.
Reason (R): The yeast cells are engineered to secrete ready-made human anti-Hepatitis B
antibodies directly into the vaccine bottle.
from yeast.
Reason (R): The yeast cells are engineered to secrete ready-made human anti-Hepatitis B
antibodies directly into the vaccine bottle.
148.According to the NCERT textbook, which of the following is/are correct characteristics of
the recombinant hepatitis B vaccine?
I. It is produced from yeast using recombinant DNA technology.
II. It represents a preparation of antigenic polypeptides of the pathogen.
III. It provides passive immunisation by supplying ready-made antibodies.
IV. It is produced at a large scale, allowing greater availability for immunisation.
the recombinant hepatitis B vaccine?
I. It is produced from yeast using recombinant DNA technology.
II. It represents a preparation of antigenic polypeptides of the pathogen.
III. It provides passive immunisation by supplying ready-made antibodies.
IV. It is produced at a large scale, allowing greater availability for immunisation.
149.Assertion (A): The principal reason why vaccination works so effectively during an actual
pathogen exposure is the 'memory' of the immune system.
Reason (R): Upon subsequent exposure, the vaccine-generated memory B and T-cells quickly
recognise the pathogen and overwhelm it with massive antibody production.
pathogen exposure is the 'memory' of the immune system.
Reason (R): Upon subsequent exposure, the vaccine-generated memory B and T-cells quickly
recognise the pathogen and overwhelm it with massive antibody production.
150.Which of the following combinations of statements accurately reflects the NCERT
textbook regarding immunity, vaccination, and immunisation?
I. Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response, whereas passive
immunity provides immediate protection.
II. Both tetanus antitoxin and snakebite antivenom injections are classical applications of
passive immunisation.
III. Recombinant DNA technology allows the large-scale production of antigenic polypeptides in
bacteria or yeast.
IV. Colostrum is a yellowish fluid containing abundant IgE antibodies that protect the newborn
infant.
textbook regarding immunity, vaccination, and immunisation?
I. Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response, whereas passive
immunity provides immediate protection.
II. Both tetanus antitoxin and snakebite antivenom injections are classical applications of
passive immunisation.
III. Recombinant DNA technology allows the large-scale production of antigenic polypeptides in
bacteria or yeast.
IV. Colostrum is a yellowish fluid containing abundant IgE antibodies that protect the newborn
infant.
151.Consider the following statements regarding allergic reactions in humans:
I. Allergy is a suppressed response of the immune system to certain self-antigens present within
the tissues.
II. The immunoglobulins produced against environmental allergens are predominantly of the
IgA type.
III. To identify the specific cause of an allergy, a patient is exposed to or injected with very large
doses of possible allergens.
IV. Modern-day lifestyle changes have lowered immunity and elevated sensitivity, causing an
increase in allergies and asthma among metro city children in India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
I. Allergy is a suppressed response of the immune system to certain self-antigens present within
the tissues.
II. The immunoglobulins produced against environmental allergens are predominantly of the
IgA type.
III. To identify the specific cause of an allergy, a patient is exposed to or injected with very large
doses of possible allergens.
IV. Modern-day lifestyle changes have lowered immunity and elevated sensitivity, causing an
increase in allergies and asthma among metro city children in India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
152.Assertion: More and more children in metro cities of India suffer from allergies and
asthma due to sensitivity to the environment.
Reason: Modern-day lifestyle has provided a protected environment early in life, resulting in the
lowering of their immunity and increased sensitivity to allergens.
asthma due to sensitivity to the environment.
Reason: Modern-day lifestyle has provided a protected environment early in life, resulting in the
lowering of their immunity and increased sensitivity to allergens.
153.Consider the following statements regarding the inflammatory chemicals and drugs
associated with allergic reactions:
I. Histamine and serotonin are released from mast cells to trigger allergic symptoms.
II. Anti-histamines, adrenalin, and steroids are drugs that can quickly reduce the symptoms of
allergy.
III. Allergens are completely non-antigenic environmental agents that bypass antibody-
mediated immune pathways.
IV. The primary class of immunoglobulins produced in response to common allergens is IgG.
Which of the combinations given below correctly represents the true (T) and false (F)
statements?
associated with allergic reactions:
I. Histamine and serotonin are released from mast cells to trigger allergic symptoms.
II. Anti-histamines, adrenalin, and steroids are drugs that can quickly reduce the symptoms of
allergy.
III. Allergens are completely non-antigenic environmental agents that bypass antibody-
mediated immune pathways.
IV. The primary class of immunoglobulins produced in response to common allergens is IgG.
Which of the combinations given below correctly represents the true (T) and false (F)
statements?
154.Assertion: The administration of anti-histamine, adrenalin, and steroids quickly reduces
the symptoms of an allergic reaction.
Reason: Allergic symptoms are caused by the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin
from mast cells, which these drugs counteract or suppress.
the symptoms of an allergic reaction.
Reason: Allergic symptoms are caused by the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin
from mast cells, which these drugs counteract or suppress.
155.Study the following physiological and pathological conditions:
1. Sneezing
2. Difficulty in breathing
3. Running nose
4. Watery eyes
5. Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C)
6. Intestinal perforation
7. Dry, scaly lesions with intense itching
According to the NCERT textbook, which of these symptoms are explicitly and
characteristically associated with allergic reactions?
1. Sneezing
2. Difficulty in breathing
3. Running nose
4. Watery eyes
5. Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C)
6. Intestinal perforation
7. Dry, scaly lesions with intense itching
According to the NCERT textbook, which of these symptoms are explicitly and
characteristically associated with allergic reactions?
156.Assertion: Mites in dust, pollens, and animal dander act as allergens that trigger the
production of IgE-type antibodies in sensitive individuals.
Reason: Allergy is defined as the exaggerated response of the host's immune system to specific
antigens present in the environment.
production of IgE-type antibodies in sensitive individuals.
Reason: Allergy is defined as the exaggerated response of the host's immune system to specific
antigens present in the environment.
157.Consider the following statements regarding the diagnosis and mechanisms of allergy:
I. To determine the cause of allergy, the patient is exposed to or injected with very small doses of
possible allergens, and the reactions are studied.
II. Allergy represents a major form of non-infectious humoral response that involves IgE
antibodies rather than IgG or IgM.
III. T-lymphocytes directly secrete IgE antibodies to bind to allergens in the blood.
IV. Mast cells are a type of specialized erythrocyte that store and release histamine and
serotonin.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
I. To determine the cause of allergy, the patient is exposed to or injected with very small doses of
possible allergens, and the reactions are studied.
II. Allergy represents a major form of non-infectious humoral response that involves IgE
antibodies rather than IgG or IgM.
III. T-lymphocytes directly secrete IgE antibodies to bind to allergens in the blood.
IV. Mast cells are a type of specialized erythrocyte that store and release histamine and
serotonin.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
158.Assertion: The production of IgE antibodies by B-lymphocytes in response to allergens
requires helper T-lymphocytes.
Reason: T-lymphocytes themselves do not secrete antibodies but are essential to help B-
lymphocytes produce them.
requires helper T-lymphocytes.
Reason: T-lymphocytes themselves do not secrete antibodies but are essential to help B-
lymphocytes produce them.
159.Consider the following statements regarding the modern epidemiological trend of
allergies in India:
I. The increase in allergies and asthma in metro city children is due to a protected environment
provided early in life.
II. A protected environment provided early in life results in an increase in the overall immunity
of the children, making them resistant to common pathogens.
III. Modern-day lifestyle has led to a decrease in sensitivity to environmental allergens over
generations.
IV. Asthmatic conditions are characterized by difficult breathing and are often triggered by
sensitivity to the environment.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
allergies in India:
I. The increase in allergies and asthma in metro city children is due to a protected environment
provided early in life.
II. A protected environment provided early in life results in an increase in the overall immunity
of the children, making them resistant to common pathogens.
III. Modern-day lifestyle has led to a decrease in sensitivity to environmental allergens over
generations.
IV. Asthmatic conditions are characterized by difficult breathing and are often triggered by
sensitivity to the environment.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
160.Assertion: A sudden, unexplained onset of sneezing and wheezing in a new location that
disappears upon leaving is indicative of an allergic response.
Reason: Sensitive individuals produce IgE antibodies in an exaggerated response to localized
environmental particles such as mites or pollens.
disappears upon leaving is indicative of an allergic response.
Reason: Sensitive individuals produce IgE antibodies in an exaggerated response to localized
environmental particles such as mites or pollens.
161.Consider the following statements regarding auto-immunity in vertebrates:
I. Memory-based acquired immunity in higher vertebrates is based on the ability to distinguish
foreign organisms from self-cells.
II. Lower vertebrates have a highly developed experimental immunology system to distinguish
foreign molecules.
III. In auto-immune disease, the body attacks self-cells due to genetic and other unknown
reasons.
IV. Rheumatoid arthritis is a classic example of an infectious disease that spreads through body
fluids.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
I. Memory-based acquired immunity in higher vertebrates is based on the ability to distinguish
foreign organisms from self-cells.
II. Lower vertebrates have a highly developed experimental immunology system to distinguish
foreign molecules.
III. In auto-immune disease, the body attacks self-cells due to genetic and other unknown
reasons.
IV. Rheumatoid arthritis is a classic example of an infectious disease that spreads through body
fluids.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
162.Assertion: Rheumatoid arthritis is classified as an auto-immune disease that causes
damage to the body.
Reason: The disease arises when the body attacks its own self-cells due to genetic and other
unknown reasons, representing a failure of self-tolerance.
damage to the body.
Reason: The disease arises when the body attacks its own self-cells due to genetic and other
unknown reasons, representing a failure of self-tolerance.
163.Consider the two corollaries of the memory-based acquired immunity in higher
vertebrates:
Corollary 1: The body possesses the ability to distinguish foreign molecules as well as foreign
organisms, which forms the basis of most experimental immunology.
Corollary 2: Under certain genetic or unknown conditions, the immune system loses its capacity
to distinguish self from non-self, leading to self-attack and auto-immune disease.
Which of the following is correct regarding these corollaries based on the NCERT textbook?
vertebrates:
Corollary 1: The body possesses the ability to distinguish foreign molecules as well as foreign
organisms, which forms the basis of most experimental immunology.
Corollary 2: Under certain genetic or unknown conditions, the immune system loses its capacity
to distinguish self from non-self, leading to self-attack and auto-immune disease.
Which of the following is correct regarding these corollaries based on the NCERT textbook?
164.Assertion: Rheumatoid arthritis causes severe damage to the tissues of the body.
Reason: It is an auto-immune disease where the body's immune system attacks its own self-cells
due to genetic and other unknown reasons.
Reason: It is an auto-immune disease where the body's immune system attacks its own self-cells
due to genetic and other unknown reasons.
165.Consider the following statements regarding the differentiation between self and non-self
cells:
I. Memory-based acquired immunity is a characteristic feature of all prokaryotes and lower
invertebrates.
II. The differentiation between self-cells and foreign organisms is a key feature of innate
barriers like saliva and tears.
III. In auto-immune diseases, the immune system fails to maintain self-tolerance and attacks the
body's own cells.
IV. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of an auto-immune disease.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
cells:
I. Memory-based acquired immunity is a characteristic feature of all prokaryotes and lower
invertebrates.
II. The differentiation between self-cells and foreign organisms is a key feature of innate
barriers like saliva and tears.
III. In auto-immune diseases, the immune system fails to maintain self-tolerance and attacks the
body's own cells.
IV. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of an auto-immune disease.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
166.Consider the following statements regarding the primary and secondary lymphoid
organs:
I. Primary lymphoid organs are the sites where immature lymphocytes differentiate into
antigen-sensitive lymphocytes.
II. Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer's patches, and thymus are all secondary lymphoid
organs.
III. Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for the interaction of lymphocytes with
antigens, allowing them to proliferate and become effector cells.
IV. Bone marrow is a secondary lymphoid organ where all blood cells, including lymphocytes,
are mature and proliferate.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
organs:
I. Primary lymphoid organs are the sites where immature lymphocytes differentiate into
antigen-sensitive lymphocytes.
II. Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer's patches, and thymus are all secondary lymphoid
organs.
III. Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for the interaction of lymphocytes with
antigens, allowing them to proliferate and become effector cells.
IV. Bone marrow is a secondary lymphoid organ where all blood cells, including lymphocytes,
are mature and proliferate.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
167.Assertion: Mature lymphocytes migrate from the bone marrow and thymus to organs like
the spleen, lymph nodes, and Peyer's patches.
Reason: These secondary lymphoid organs provide the crucial sites for the interaction of
lymphocytes with antigens, enabling them to proliferate into effector cells.
the spleen, lymph nodes, and Peyer's patches.
Reason: These secondary lymphoid organs provide the crucial sites for the interaction of
lymphocytes with antigens, enabling them to proliferate into effector cells.
168.Consider the following statements regarding the bone marrow and the thymus:
I. Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells, including lymphocytes, are
produced.
II. The thymus is a lobed organ located near the heart and beneath the breastbone.
III. The thymus is very small at the time of birth but keeps increasing in size with age, reaching
its maximum size at puberty.
IV. Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro-environments for the development and
maturation of T-lymphocytes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
I. Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells, including lymphocytes, are
produced.
II. The thymus is a lobed organ located near the heart and beneath the breastbone.
III. The thymus is very small at the time of birth but keeps increasing in size with age, reaching
its maximum size at puberty.
IV. Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro-environments for the development and
maturation of T-lymphocytes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
169.Assertion: The thymus gland plays a highly critical role during early life but undergoes
massive regression as the individual approaches adulthood.
Reason: The thymus is quite large at the time of birth but keeps reducing in size with age, and
by the time puberty is attained, it reduces to a very small size.
massive regression as the individual approaches adulthood.
Reason: The thymus is quite large at the time of birth but keeps reducing in size with age, and
by the time puberty is attained, it reduces to a very small size.
170.Consider the following statements regarding the anatomy and functions of the spleen:
I. Spleen is a large, bean-shaped organ that mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.
II. It acts as a filter of the lymph by trapping lymph-borne micro-organisms.
III. Spleen serves as a major reservoir of erythrocytes.
IV. Spleen is a primary lymphoid organ where B-lymphocytes undergo antigen-sensitive
differentiation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
I. Spleen is a large, bean-shaped organ that mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.
II. It acts as a filter of the lymph by trapping lymph-borne micro-organisms.
III. Spleen serves as a major reservoir of erythrocytes.
IV. Spleen is a primary lymphoid organ where B-lymphocytes undergo antigen-sensitive
differentiation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
171.Assertion: The spleen serves as an effective blood filter that traps blood-borne micro-
organisms.
Reason: It is a large bean-shaped organ containing an abundance of lymphocytes and
phagocytes.
organisms.
Reason: It is a large bean-shaped organ containing an abundance of lymphocytes and
phagocytes.
172.Consider the following statements regarding the lymph nodes and their role in immunity:
I. Lymph nodes are small solid structures located at different points along the blood circulatory
system.
II. Lymph nodes serve to trap micro-organisms or other antigens that enter the lymph and
tissue fluid.
III. Antigens trapped in the lymph nodes are responsible for activating the lymphocytes present
there, triggering an immune response.
IV. Unlike the spleen which contains phagocytes, lymph nodes contain only antibodies and no
cellular components.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
I. Lymph nodes are small solid structures located at different points along the blood circulatory
system.
II. Lymph nodes serve to trap micro-organisms or other antigens that enter the lymph and
tissue fluid.
III. Antigens trapped in the lymph nodes are responsible for activating the lymphocytes present
there, triggering an immune response.
IV. Unlike the spleen which contains phagocytes, lymph nodes contain only antibodies and no
cellular components.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
173.Assertion: Antigens entering the lymph and tissue fluid lead to the initiation of an
immune response inside the lymph nodes.
Reason: Lymph nodes trap these antigens, and the trapped antigens are responsible for the
activation of the lymphocytes present within these structures.
immune response inside the lymph nodes.
Reason: Lymph nodes trap these antigens, and the trapped antigens are responsible for the
activation of the lymphocytes present within these structures.
174.Consider the following statements regarding Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue
(MALT):
I. MALT stands for Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue.
II. MALT is located within the lining of the major tracts, including the respiratory, digestive,
and urogenital tracts.
III. MALT is a primary lymphoid organ where immature lymphocytes undergo antigen-
sensitive differentiation.
IV. MALT constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(MALT):
I. MALT stands for Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue.
II. MALT is located within the lining of the major tracts, including the respiratory, digestive,
and urogenital tracts.
III. MALT is a primary lymphoid organ where immature lymphocytes undergo antigen-
sensitive differentiation.
IV. MALT constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
175.Assertion: Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) is considered a highly significant
component of the human immune system.
Reason: It constitutes about 50 per cent of the entire lymphoid tissue in the human body and
lines the major respiratory, digestive, and urogenital tracts.
component of the human immune system.
Reason: It constitutes about 50 per cent of the entire lymphoid tissue in the human body and
lines the major respiratory, digestive, and urogenital tracts.
176.Consider the following statements regarding the major mucosal tracts (respiratory,
digestive, and urogenital tracts) in the human body and their defenses:
I. The mucus coating of the epithelium lining these tracts acts as a physical barrier of innate
immunity to trap entering microbes.
II. These tracts contain mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) within their lining.
III. MALT in these linings constitutes exactly 25% of the total lymphoid tissue in the human
body.
IV. The acid present within these tracts represents the cytokine barrier that prevents all
microbial growth.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
digestive, and urogenital tracts) in the human body and their defenses:
I. The mucus coating of the epithelium lining these tracts acts as a physical barrier of innate
immunity to trap entering microbes.
II. These tracts contain mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) within their lining.
III. MALT in these linings constitutes exactly 25% of the total lymphoid tissue in the human
body.
IV. The acid present within these tracts represents the cytokine barrier that prevents all
microbial growth.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
177.Assertion: The spleen and lymph nodes serve complementary filtration roles within the
secondary lymphoid system.
Reason: The spleen traps blood-borne micro-organisms to filter the blood, while the lymph
nodes trap micro-organisms or other antigens that enter the lymph and tissue fluid.
secondary lymphoid system.
Reason: The spleen traps blood-borne micro-organisms to filter the blood, while the lymph
nodes trap micro-organisms or other antigens that enter the lymph and tissue fluid.
178.Consider the following statements comparing the roles of Bone Marrow, Thymus, and
Lymph Nodes:
I. All blood cells, including lymphocytes, are produced in the bone marrow.
II. Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro-environments for the development and
maturation of T-lymphocytes.
III. Lymph nodes serve to mature immature lymphocytes into antigen-sensitive T-cells.
IV. Antigens trapped in lymph nodes are responsible for the activation of lymphocytes present
there.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Lymph Nodes:
I. All blood cells, including lymphocytes, are produced in the bone marrow.
II. Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro-environments for the development and
maturation of T-lymphocytes.
III. Lymph nodes serve to mature immature lymphocytes into antigen-sensitive T-cells.
IV. Antigens trapped in lymph nodes are responsible for the activation of lymphocytes present
there.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
179.Assertion: Bone marrow and thymus are classified as the primary lymphoid organs of the
human body.
Reason: They provide the essential sites where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-
sensitive lymphocytes and undergo development.
human body.
Reason: They provide the essential sites where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-
sensitive lymphocytes and undergo development.
180.Consider the following list of organs and tissues in the human body:
1. Bone marrow
2. Spleen
3. Thymus
4. Tonsils
5. Peyer's patches of the large intestine
6. Appendix
7. Lymph nodes
According to the NCERT textbook, which of the options correctly identifies the complete set of
secondary lymphoid organs from the list?
1. Bone marrow
2. Spleen
3. Thymus
4. Tonsils
5. Peyer's patches of the large intestine
6. Appendix
7. Lymph nodes
According to the NCERT textbook, which of the options correctly identifies the complete set of
secondary lymphoid organs from the list?
181.Consider the following statements regarding the history, epidemiology, and nature of
AIDS:
I. AIDS is a congenital disease characterized by a deficiency of the immune system that is
present at birth.
II. The syndrome was first reported in 1981.
III. In the last twenty-five years or so, AIDS has spread all over the world, killing more than 25
million persons.
IV. 'Syndrome' in AIDS refers to a single, highly specific physiological symptom that
pathognomonically defines the disease.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
AIDS:
I. AIDS is a congenital disease characterized by a deficiency of the immune system that is
present at birth.
II. The syndrome was first reported in 1981.
III. In the last twenty-five years or so, AIDS has spread all over the world, killing more than 25
million persons.
IV. 'Syndrome' in AIDS refers to a single, highly specific physiological symptom that
pathognomonically defines the disease.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
182.Assertion: Human Immuno deficiency Virus (HIV) is classified as a retrovirus because it
possesses an envelope enclosing a double-stranded DNA genome.
Reason: Retroviruses utilize the host machinery to replicate their genetic material through
DNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity.
possesses an envelope enclosing a double-stranded DNA genome.
Reason: Retroviruses utilize the host machinery to replicate their genetic material through
DNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity.
183.Consider the following modes of transmission and identify which of them are explicitly
listed by the NCERT textbook as routes of HIV-infection:
1. Sexual contact with an infected person.
2. Transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products.
3. Sharing infected needles as in the case of intravenous drug abusers.
4. From an infected mother to her child through the placenta.
5. Inhalation of respiratory droplets sloughed from an infected person.
6. Casual touch, handshakes, or hugging an infected individual in a public place.
Select the correct combination from the options given below:
listed by the NCERT textbook as routes of HIV-infection:
1. Sexual contact with an infected person.
2. Transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products.
3. Sharing infected needles as in the case of intravenous drug abusers.
4. From an infected mother to her child through the placenta.
5. Inhalation of respiratory droplets sloughed from an infected person.
6. Casual touch, handshakes, or hugging an infected individual in a public place.
Select the correct combination from the options given below:
184.The NCERT textbook explicitly identifies certain groups of individuals who are at a 'high
risk' of getting HIV infection. Analyze the following statements and identify the correct
combination of high-risk individuals:
I. Individuals who have multiple sexual partners.
II. Drug addicts who take drugs intravenously.
III. Individuals who require repeated blood transfusions.
IV. Children born to an HIV-infected mother.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
risk' of getting HIV infection. Analyze the following statements and identify the correct
combination of high-risk individuals:
I. Individuals who have multiple sexual partners.
II. Drug addicts who take drugs intravenously.
III. Individuals who require repeated blood transfusions.
IV. Children born to an HIV-infected mother.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
185.Assertion: It is imperative for the physical and psychological well-being of HIV/AIDS
infected persons that they are not isolated from family and society.
Reason: HIV/AIDS is not spread by mere touch or physical contact; it spreads exclusively
through body fluids.
infected persons that they are not isolated from family and society.
Reason: HIV/AIDS is not spread by mere touch or physical contact; it spreads exclusively
through body fluids.
186.Assertion: There is always a highly consistent and fixed time-lag of exactly 5 to 10 months
between the initial HIV infection and the appearance of AIDS symptoms.
Reason: During the initial months, the viral replication is completely arrested within the host
cells, preventing any progressive decrease in lymphocytes.
between the initial HIV infection and the appearance of AIDS symptoms.
Reason: During the initial months, the viral replication is completely arrested within the host
cells, preventing any progressive decrease in lymphocytes.
187.Assertion: Upon entering the host body, the HIV virus selectively enters the helper T-
lymphocytes first to transcribe its RNA genome into viral DNA, thereby turning these T-cells
into an 'HIV factory'.
Reason: Helper T-lymphocytes contain the machinery to replicate the RNA genome using the
host's own DNA polymerase enzyme.
lymphocytes first to transcribe its RNA genome into viral DNA, thereby turning these T-cells
into an 'HIV factory'.
Reason: Helper T-lymphocytes contain the machinery to replicate the RNA genome using the
host's own DNA polymerase enzyme.
188.The replication of a retrovirus inside a host cell involves several crucial molecular steps.
According to the NCERT textbook description and diagram (Figure 7.6), identify the correct
sequence of events:
1. The virus infects the host cell, and its protein coat remains outside while the viral RNA is
introduced into the cell.
2. Viral DNA is produced from viral RNA by the host cell's RNA polymerase.
3. Viral DNA gets incorporated into the host genome.
4. New viral RNA is produced by the infected host cell's directed transcription.
5. New viral particles are assembled and released to infect other cells, while the helper T-cell is
immediately lysed.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
According to the NCERT textbook description and diagram (Figure 7.6), identify the correct
sequence of events:
1. The virus infects the host cell, and its protein coat remains outside while the viral RNA is
introduced into the cell.
2. Viral DNA is produced from viral RNA by the host cell's RNA polymerase.
3. Viral DNA gets incorporated into the host genome.
4. New viral RNA is produced by the infected host cell's directed transcription.
5. New viral particles are assembled and released to infect other cells, while the helper T-cell is
immediately lysed.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
189.Assertion: In an HIV-infected individual, there is a progressive and selective decrease in
the number of helper T-lymphocytes in the body.
Reason: The progeny viruses released from infected macrophages and helper T-lymphocytes
continuously attack and replicate within other helper T-lymphocytes in a repetitive cycle.
the number of helper T-lymphocytes in the body.
Reason: The progeny viruses released from infected macrophages and helper T-lymphocytes
continuously attack and replicate within other helper T-lymphocytes in a repetitive cycle.
190.Consider the following pathogens and select the correct list of opportunistic organisms
explicitly mentioned by the NCERT textbook that cause secondary infections in an immuno-
deficient AIDS patient:
1. Mycobacterium (bacteria)
2. Rhino virus (virus)
3. Fungi
4. Toxoplasma (parasite)
5. Entamoeba histolytica (protozoan)
6. Salmonella typhi (bacteria)
Select the correct combination from the options given below:
explicitly mentioned by the NCERT textbook that cause secondary infections in an immuno-
deficient AIDS patient:
1. Mycobacterium (bacteria)
2. Rhino virus (virus)
3. Fungi
4. Toxoplasma (parasite)
5. Entamoeba histolytica (protozoan)
6. Salmonella typhi (bacteria)
Select the correct combination from the options given below:
191.Study the following symptoms:
1. Bouts of fever
2. Diarrhoea
3. Weight loss
4. Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C)
5. Dry, scaly skin lesions
6. Internal bleeding and muscular pain
According to the NCERT textbook, which of the symptom(s) given above is/are
characteristically suffered by a patient during the period of progressive helper T-lymphocyte
decrease?
1. Bouts of fever
2. Diarrhoea
3. Weight loss
4. Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C)
5. Dry, scaly skin lesions
6. Internal bleeding and muscular pain
According to the NCERT textbook, which of the symptom(s) given above is/are
characteristically suffered by a patient during the period of progressive helper T-lymphocyte
decrease?
192.Assertion: A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is the Widal test, which detects the
presence of HIV antibodies.
Reason: Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay (ELISA) is a highly specialized therapy used to
prolong the life of AIDS patients.
presence of HIV antibodies.
Reason: Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay (ELISA) is a highly specialized therapy used to
prolong the life of AIDS patients.
193.Assertion: Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is highly effective and completely
cures the patient by eradicating the virus.
Reason: Anti-retroviral drugs completely block host RNA transcription, preventing the
synthesis of any viral proteins.
cures the patient by eradicating the virus.
Reason: Anti-retroviral drugs completely block host RNA transcription, preventing the
synthesis of any viral proteins.
194.Consider the following statements regarding the spread and prevention of HIV infection:
I. HIV infection spreads predominantly due to conscious behaviour patterns rather than
inadvertent transmission.
II. Diseases like typhoid and pneumonia spread in a conscious manner, whereas HIV is always
contracted inadvertently.
III. In blood transfusion patients and new-borns, HIV transmission can occur due to poor
monitoring.
IV. 'Don't die of ignorance' is a well-known slogan emphasizing that ignorance is the only excuse
for the spread of AIDS.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
I. HIV infection spreads predominantly due to conscious behaviour patterns rather than
inadvertent transmission.
II. Diseases like typhoid and pneumonia spread in a conscious manner, whereas HIV is always
contracted inadvertently.
III. In blood transfusion patients and new-borns, HIV transmission can occur due to poor
monitoring.
IV. 'Don't die of ignorance' is a well-known slogan emphasizing that ignorance is the only excuse
for the spread of AIDS.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
195.According to the NCERT textbook, several key measures are implemented by national
and international organizations to prevent the spread of HIV. Identify the correct combination
of measures:
1. National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) and NGOs educating people.
2. WHO starting programmes to make blood from blood banks safe from HIV.
3. Ensuring the use of only disposable needles and syringes in public and private clinics.
4. Free distribution of condoms and controlling drug abuse.
5. Advocating safe sex and promoting regular check-ups for HIV in susceptible populations.
6. Distribution of free anti-retroviral drugs to completely cure all infected populations.
Select the correct combination from the options given below:
and international organizations to prevent the spread of HIV. Identify the correct combination
of measures:
1. National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) and NGOs educating people.
2. WHO starting programmes to make blood from blood banks safe from HIV.
3. Ensuring the use of only disposable needles and syringes in public and private clinics.
4. Free distribution of condoms and controlling drug abuse.
5. Advocating safe sex and promoting regular check-ups for HIV in susceptible populations.
6. Distribution of free anti-retroviral drugs to completely cure all infected populations.
Select the correct combination from the options given below:
196.Assertion: Normal cells in the human body show a property called contact inhibition,
which stimulates their rapid and uncontrolled division upon contact with other cells.
Reason: In cancer cells, there is a major breakdown of regulatory mechanisms, leading to the
loss of contact inhibition.
which stimulates their rapid and uncontrolled division upon contact with other cells.
Reason: In cancer cells, there is a major breakdown of regulatory mechanisms, leading to the
loss of contact inhibition.
197.Consider the following statements comparing benign and malignant tumors:
I. Benign tumors normally remain confined to their original location, do not spread to other
parts of the body, and cause relatively little damage.
II. Malignant tumors are a mass of proliferating cells called neoplastic or tumor cells.
III. Neoplastic cells grow very slowly and invade surrounding normal tissues without causing
any structural damage.
IV. Malignant cells starve normal cells by competing for vital nutrients.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
I. Benign tumors normally remain confined to their original location, do not spread to other
parts of the body, and cause relatively little damage.
II. Malignant tumors are a mass of proliferating cells called neoplastic or tumor cells.
III. Neoplastic cells grow very slowly and invade surrounding normal tissues without causing
any structural damage.
IV. Malignant cells starve normal cells by competing for vital nutrients.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
198.Assertion: Metastasis is the most feared and characteristic property of benign tumors in
human organs.
Reason: Cells sloughed from benign tumors reach distant sites through blood, and wherever
they get lodged, they start a new tumor.
human organs.
Reason: Cells sloughed from benign tumors reach distant sites through blood, and wherever
they get lodged, they start a new tumor.
199.Assertion: Non-ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays cause neoplastic
transformation by inducing deep DNA damage.
Reason: Ionising radiations like UV rays are highly penetrative and cause transformation of
normal cells into malignant cells.
transformation by inducing deep DNA damage.
Reason: Ionising radiations like UV rays are highly penetrative and cause transformation of
normal cells into malignant cells.
200.Consider the following statements regarding the chemical and biological causes of cancer:
I. Chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been identified as a major cause of lung
cancer.
II. Oncogenic viruses contain genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc) that integrate into the host
DNA.
III. Normal cells contain several genes called proto-oncogenes which, when activated under
certain conditions, lead to oncogenic transformation.
IV. Activation of viral oncogenes in normal human cells is completely controlled by non-ionising
UV radiation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
I. Chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been identified as a major cause of lung
cancer.
II. Oncogenic viruses contain genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc) that integrate into the host
DNA.
III. Normal cells contain several genes called proto-oncogenes which, when activated under
certain conditions, lead to oncogenic transformation.
IV. Activation of viral oncogenes in normal human cells is completely controlled by non-ionising
UV radiation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
201.According to the NCERT textbook, cancer detection is based on specific clinical
techniques. Identify the correct combination of diagnostic features:
1. Biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue.
2. Blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in the case of leukemias.
3. Computed tomography (CT) to generate a three-dimensional image of internal organs.
4. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) using strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations.
5. In biopsy, a piece of suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined by a
pathologist under a microscope.
Select the correct combination from the options given below:
techniques. Identify the correct combination of diagnostic features:
1. Biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue.
2. Blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in the case of leukemias.
3. Computed tomography (CT) to generate a three-dimensional image of internal organs.
4. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) using strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations.
5. In biopsy, a piece of suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined by a
pathologist under a microscope.
Select the correct combination from the options given below:
202.Assertion: Computed Tomography (CT) uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising
radiations to generate highly accurate three-dimensional images of internal organs.
Reason: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) uses highly penetrative ionising X-rays to
accurately detect physiological changes in living tissues.
radiations to generate highly accurate three-dimensional images of internal organs.
Reason: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) uses highly penetrative ionising X-rays to
accurately detect physiological changes in living tissues.
203.Assertion: Techniques of molecular biology can be applied to detect genes in individuals
with inherited susceptibility to certain cancers.
Reason: Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are widely used for the therapeutic
eradication of all neoplastic genes.
with inherited susceptibility to certain cancers.
Reason: Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are widely used for the therapeutic
eradication of all neoplastic genes.
204.Assertion: Individuals identified with inherited susceptibility to certain cancers must be
advised to completely avoid exposure to specific carcinogens.
Reason: Exposure to particular carcinogens, such as tobacco smoke in the case of lung cancer,
can activate predisposing genes leading to oncogenic transformation.
advised to completely avoid exposure to specific carcinogens.
Reason: Exposure to particular carcinogens, such as tobacco smoke in the case of lung cancer,
can activate predisposing genes leading to oncogenic transformation.
205.Consider the following statements regarding the treatment approaches for cancer
described in NCERT:
I. The common approaches for treatment of cancer are surgery, radiation therapy, and
immunotherapy.
II. In radiotherapy, normal tissues surrounding the tumor mass are irradiated lethally while
carefully protecting the tumor cells.
III. Majority of chemotherapeutic drugs have side effects like hair loss and anemia.
IV. Most cancers are treated by a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
described in NCERT:
I. The common approaches for treatment of cancer are surgery, radiation therapy, and
immunotherapy.
II. In radiotherapy, normal tissues surrounding the tumor mass are irradiated lethally while
carefully protecting the tumor cells.
III. Majority of chemotherapeutic drugs have side effects like hair loss and anemia.
IV. Most cancers are treated by a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
206.Assertion: Cancer patients are administered substances called biological response
modifiers, such as alpha-interferon, to help destroy tumors.
Reason: Alpha-interferon acts by directly covering the tumor cells, thereby physically hiding
them from the host's destructive immune system.
modifiers, such as alpha-interferon, to help destroy tumors.
Reason: Alpha-interferon acts by directly covering the tumor cells, thereby physically hiding
them from the host's destructive immune system.
207.Assertion: More than a billion Indians suffer from cancer annually, representing the
highest global concentration of neoplastic transformations.
Reason: Neoplastic transformation is induced primarily by physical and biological carcinogens
that are endemic only to the Indian subcontinent.
highest global concentration of neoplastic transformations.
Reason: Neoplastic transformation is induced primarily by physical and biological carcinogens
that are endemic only to the Indian subcontinent.
208.Assertion: In biopsy, a piece of suspected tissue is cut into thin sections, stained, and
examined under a microscope by a pathologist.
Reason: Biopsy tissue examination represents a form of radiographic analysis that uses non-
ionising UV rays to visualize genetic alterations.
examined under a microscope by a pathologist.
Reason: Biopsy tissue examination represents a form of radiographic analysis that uses non-
ionising UV rays to visualize genetic alterations.
209.Assertion: In the case of leukemias, cancer detection is based heavily on biopsy of skeletal
muscle tissues to detect increased cell counts.
Reason: Leukemias are characterised by a highly controlled decrease in the red blood cell count
in the bone marrow.
muscle tissues to detect increased cell counts.
Reason: Leukemias are characterised by a highly controlled decrease in the red blood cell count
in the bone marrow.
210.Assertion: Most cancers are treated by a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, and
chemotherapy rather than a single modality.
Reason: Majority of chemotherapeutic drugs have significant side effects like hair loss and
anemia.
chemotherapy rather than a single modality.
Reason: Majority of chemotherapeutic drugs have significant side effects like hair loss and
anemia.
211.Consider the following statements regarding opioids and select the correct
combination:\n\nI. Opioids are drugs that bind to specific receptors present only in the central
nervous system of our body.\nII. Heroin, commonly called smack, is chemically
diacetylmorphine, which is a white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound.\nIII. Morphine is
extracted from the latex of the poppy plant *Papaver somniferum*, and its acetylation yields
heroin.\nIV. Heroin acts as a stimulant that increases body functions.
combination:\n\nI. Opioids are drugs that bind to specific receptors present only in the central
nervous system of our body.\nII. Heroin, commonly called smack, is chemically
diacetylmorphine, which is a white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound.\nIII. Morphine is
extracted from the latex of the poppy plant *Papaver somniferum*, and its acetylation yields
heroin.\nIV. Heroin acts as a stimulant that increases body functions.
212.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Heroin, generally taken by snorting and injection, acts as a
depressant and slows down body functions.\nReason (R): Diacetylmorphine binds to specific
cannabinoid receptors present in our central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Heroin, generally taken by snorting and injection, acts as a
depressant and slows down body functions.\nReason (R): Diacetylmorphine binds to specific
cannabinoid receptors present in our central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract.
213.Identify the correct statements regarding cannabinoids from the following options:\n\nI.
Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescences of the plant *Cannabis sativa*.\nII.
Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid receptors present principally in the gastrointestinal
tract and cardiovascular system.\nIII. The flower tops, leaves, and resin of the cannabis plant
are used in various combinations to produce marijuana, hashish, charas, and ganja.\nIV.
Cannabinoids are generally taken by snorting and injection.
Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescences of the plant *Cannabis sativa*.\nII.
Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid receptors present principally in the gastrointestinal
tract and cardiovascular system.\nIII. The flower tops, leaves, and resin of the cannabis plant
are used in various combinations to produce marijuana, hashish, charas, and ganja.\nIV.
Cannabinoids are generally taken by snorting and injection.
214.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Cannabinoids are well-known for their effects on the
cardiovascular system of the human body.\nReason (R): Cannabinoid receptors are present
principally in the heart and blood vessels of the cardiovascular system.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Cannabinoids are well-known for their effects on the
cardiovascular system of the human body.\nReason (R): Cannabinoid receptors are present
principally in the heart and blood vessels of the cardiovascular system.
215.Analyze the statements regarding coca alkaloids and select the correct option:\n\nI. Coca
alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from the plant *Erythroxylum coca*, which is native to South
America.\nII. Cocaine interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine.\nIII.
Cocaine has a potent depressing action on the central nervous system, producing a sense of
euphoria and increased energy.\nIV. Cocaine, commonly called coke or crack, is usually snorted.
alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from the plant *Erythroxylum coca*, which is native to South
America.\nII. Cocaine interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine.\nIII.
Cocaine has a potent depressing action on the central nervous system, producing a sense of
euphoria and increased energy.\nIV. Cocaine, commonly called coke or crack, is usually snorted.
216.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Excessive dosage of cocaine causes hallucinations.\nReason
(R): Well-known plants with hallucinogenic properties include *Atropa belladona* and
*Datura*.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Excessive dosage of cocaine causes hallucinations.\nReason
(R): Well-known plants with hallucinogenic properties include *Atropa belladona* and
*Datura*.
217.Which of the following statements regarding the abuse of medicines and sports
substances are correct?\n\nI. Cannabinoids are being abused by some sportspersons.\nII.
Barbiturates, amphetamines, and benzodiazepines are drugs that are normally used as
medicines to help patients cope with mental illnesses like depression and insomnia.\nIII.
Morphine is a very effective stimulant and painkiller, and is highly useful in patients who have
undergone surgery.\nIV. When drugs are taken for a purpose other than medicinal use or in
amounts/frequency that impairs one’s physical, physiological or psychological functions, it
constitutes drug abuse.
substances are correct?\n\nI. Cannabinoids are being abused by some sportspersons.\nII.
Barbiturates, amphetamines, and benzodiazepines are drugs that are normally used as
medicines to help patients cope with mental illnesses like depression and insomnia.\nIII.
Morphine is a very effective stimulant and painkiller, and is highly useful in patients who have
undergone surgery.\nIV. When drugs are taken for a purpose other than medicinal use or in
amounts/frequency that impairs one’s physical, physiological or psychological functions, it
constitutes drug abuse.
218.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Morphine is highly useful for patients who have undergone
surgery.\nReason (R): Morphine is obtained by the acetylation of heroin, which is extracted
from the latex of *Papaver somniferum*.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Morphine is highly useful for patients who have undergone
surgery.\nReason (R): Morphine is obtained by the acetylation of heroin, which is extracted
from the latex of *Papaver somniferum*.
219.Match the biochemical descriptions of drugs and select the correct combination of
statements:\n\nI. Heroin is diacetylmorphine, obtained by the acetylation of morphine.\nII.
Cocaine acts by interfering with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine.\nIII.
Barbiturates are used to treat patients suffering from insomnia and depression.\nIV. Cocaine
acts by interfering with the transport of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
statements:\n\nI. Heroin is diacetylmorphine, obtained by the acetylation of morphine.\nII.
Cocaine acts by interfering with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine.\nIII.
Barbiturates are used to treat patients suffering from insomnia and depression.\nIV. Cocaine
acts by interfering with the transport of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
220.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Taking hallucinogenic plants for purposes other than
medicinal use, or in amounts that impair physical or physiological functions, constitutes drug
abuse.\nReason (R): Several plants, fruits, and seeds with hallucinogenic properties have been
used for hundreds of years in folk-medicine, religious ceremonies, and rituals all over the globe.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Taking hallucinogenic plants for purposes other than
medicinal use, or in amounts that impair physical or physiological functions, constitutes drug
abuse.\nReason (R): Several plants, fruits, and seeds with hallucinogenic properties have been
used for hundreds of years in folk-medicine, religious ceremonies, and rituals all over the globe.
221.Read the following statements regarding tobacco and select the correct option:\n\nI.
Tobacco has been used by human beings for more than 400 years and is smoked, chewed, or
used as a snuff.\nII. Tobacco contains a large number of chemical substances including nicotine,
which is an addictive alkaloid.\nIII. Nicotine stimulates the adrenal gland to release adrenaline
and nor-adrenaline into the blood circulation.\nIV. The release of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline
due to nicotine stimulates the pituitary gland to raise blood pressure.
Tobacco has been used by human beings for more than 400 years and is smoked, chewed, or
used as a snuff.\nII. Tobacco contains a large number of chemical substances including nicotine,
which is an addictive alkaloid.\nIII. Nicotine stimulates the adrenal gland to release adrenaline
and nor-adrenaline into the blood circulation.\nIV. The release of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline
due to nicotine stimulates the pituitary gland to raise blood pressure.
222.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Smoking tobacco increases the carbon monoxide (CO) content
in the blood, leading to oxygen deficiency in the body.\nReason (R): Carbon monoxide in the
blood reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Smoking tobacco increases the carbon monoxide (CO) content
in the blood, leading to oxygen deficiency in the body.\nReason (R): Carbon monoxide in the
blood reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen.
223.Which of the following combinations of diseases is correctly associated with the mode of
tobacco use according to NCERT?\n\nI. Smoking: Increased incidence of lung cancer, urinary
bladder cancer, and throat cancer.\nII. Smoking: Bronchitis, emphysema, coronary heart
disease, and gastric ulcer.\nIII. Tobacco Chewing: Increased risk of cancer of the oral
cavity.\nIV. Tobacco Chewing: Direct cause of emphysema and coronary heart disease.
tobacco use according to NCERT?\n\nI. Smoking: Increased incidence of lung cancer, urinary
bladder cancer, and throat cancer.\nII. Smoking: Bronchitis, emphysema, coronary heart
disease, and gastric ulcer.\nIII. Tobacco Chewing: Increased risk of cancer of the oral
cavity.\nIV. Tobacco Chewing: Direct cause of emphysema and coronary heart disease.
224.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Every packet of cigarettes sold in the market carries a
statutory warning warning against smoking and stating how it is injurious to health.\nReason
(R): Overcoming tobacco addiction is highly simple and can be easily achieved through self-will
without any counselling or medical help.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Every packet of cigarettes sold in the market carries a
statutory warning warning against smoking and stating how it is injurious to health.\nReason
(R): Overcoming tobacco addiction is highly simple and can be easily achieved through self-will
without any counselling or medical help.
225.Select the correct statements regarding the period and vulnerability of adolescence as per
NCERT:\n\nI. The period between 12-18 years of age is considered as the adolescence
period.\nII. Adolescence is a bridge linking childhood and adulthood.\nIII. Adolescence is
accompanied by several biological and behavioural changes.\nIV. Adolescence is a highly stable
phase of mental and psychological development of an individual.
NCERT:\n\nI. The period between 12-18 years of age is considered as the adolescence
period.\nII. Adolescence is a bridge linking childhood and adulthood.\nIII. Adolescence is
accompanied by several biological and behavioural changes.\nIV. Adolescence is a highly stable
phase of mental and psychological development of an individual.
226.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Youngsters are often persuaded to try alcohol and drugs due to
the perception that it is 'cool' or progressive to smoke or use drugs.\nReason (R): Television,
movies, newspapers, and the internet help to promote the perception that drug or alcohol use is
cool or progressive.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Youngsters are often persuaded to try alcohol and drugs due to
the perception that it is 'cool' or progressive to smoke or use drugs.\nReason (R): Television,
movies, newspapers, and the internet help to promote the perception that drug or alcohol use is
cool or progressive.
227.Identify the correct statements regarding the conceptual definitions of addiction
according to NCERT:\n\nI. Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects, such as
euphoria and a temporary feeling of well-being, associated with drugs and alcohol.\nII. With
repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors present in our body increases.\nIII.
Receptors respond only to higher doses of drugs or alcohol, leading to greater intake and
addiction.\nIV. The addictive potential of drugs is so low that using them once can never be a
fore-runner to addiction.
according to NCERT:\n\nI. Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects, such as
euphoria and a temporary feeling of well-being, associated with drugs and alcohol.\nII. With
repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors present in our body increases.\nIII.
Receptors respond only to higher doses of drugs or alcohol, leading to greater intake and
addiction.\nIV. The addictive potential of drugs is so low that using them once can never be a
fore-runner to addiction.
228.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): With repeated use of drugs, the receptors present in our body
respond only to higher doses of drugs or alcohol.\nReason (R): Repeated use of drugs decreases
the tolerance level of the receptors present in our body.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): With repeated use of drugs, the receptors present in our body
respond only to higher doses of drugs or alcohol.\nReason (R): Repeated use of drugs decreases
the tolerance level of the receptors present in our body.
229.Read the statements regarding dependence and withdrawal syndrome and select the
correct option:\n\nI. Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and
unpleasant withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued.\nII.
Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea, and sweating.\nIII.
Withdrawal symptoms are always mild and never life-threatening, requiring no medical
supervision.\nIV. Dependence leads the patient to ignore all social norms in order to get
sufficient funds, resulting in social adjustment problems.
correct option:\n\nI. Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and
unpleasant withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued.\nII.
Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea, and sweating.\nIII.
Withdrawal symptoms are always mild and never life-threatening, requiring no medical
supervision.\nIV. Dependence leads the patient to ignore all social norms in order to get
sufficient funds, resulting in social adjustment problems.
230.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): An individual who abruptly stops taking a regular dose of
alcohol or drugs may experience anxiety, shakiness, nausea, and sweating.\nReason (R): Abrupt
discontinuation of an addictive substance triggers the body to show a characteristic withdrawal
syndrome due to established dependence.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): An individual who abruptly stops taking a regular dose of
alcohol or drugs may experience anxiety, shakiness, nausea, and sweating.\nReason (R): Abrupt
discontinuation of an addictive substance triggers the body to show a characteristic withdrawal
syndrome due to established dependence.
231.Which of the following statements regarding substance misuse in sports are correct
according to NCERT?\n\nI. Certain sportspersons misuse narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids,
diuretics, and certain hormones to enhance performance.\nII. These substances are misused to
increase muscle strength and bulk.\nIII. Anabolic steroids are misused in sports to promote
aggressiveness.\nIV. The use of these substances in sports has been scientifically proven to have
no permanent side-effects.
according to NCERT?\n\nI. Certain sportspersons misuse narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids,
diuretics, and certain hormones to enhance performance.\nII. These substances are misused to
increase muscle strength and bulk.\nIII. Anabolic steroids are misused in sports to promote
aggressiveness.\nIV. The use of these substances in sports has been scientifically proven to have
no permanent side-effects.
232.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): The side-effects of anabolic steroid misuse in females include
masculinisation, increased aggressiveness, and mood swings.\nReason (R): Females taking
anabolic steroids experience abnormal menstrual cycles, excessive hair growth on the face and
body, enlargement of the clitoris, and deepening of the voice.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): The side-effects of anabolic steroid misuse in females include
masculinisation, increased aggressiveness, and mood swings.\nReason (R): Females taking
anabolic steroids experience abnormal menstrual cycles, excessive hair growth on the face and
body, enlargement of the clitoris, and deepening of the voice.
233.Which of the following are recognized side-effects of anabolic steroid misuse in males
according to NCERT?\n\nI. Acne, aggressiveness, mood swings, and depression.\nII. Reduction
in the size of testicles and decreased sperm production.\nIII. Potential for kidney and liver
dysfunction, breast enlargement, and enlargement of the prostate gland.\nIV. Masculinisation,
abnormal menstrual cycles, and enlargement of the clitoris.
according to NCERT?\n\nI. Acne, aggressiveness, mood swings, and depression.\nII. Reduction
in the size of testicles and decreased sperm production.\nIII. Potential for kidney and liver
dysfunction, breast enlargement, and enlargement of the prostate gland.\nIV. Masculinisation,
abnormal menstrual cycles, and enlargement of the clitoris.
234.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Side-effects of anabolic steroid misuse in males, such as
reduction of testicle size and breast enlargement, are always temporary and quickly
reversible.\nReason (R): Prolonged use of anabolic steroids in both males and females can cause
effects that may be permanent.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Side-effects of anabolic steroid misuse in males, such as
reduction of testicle size and breast enlargement, are always temporary and quickly
reversible.\nReason (R): Prolonged use of anabolic steroids in both males and females can cause
effects that may be permanent.
235.Analyze the statements regarding the effects of anabolic steroid abuse in adolescents and
select the correct option:\n\nI. In adolescent males and females, severe facial and body acne can
occur.\nII. Premature closure of the growth centres of the long bones may occur.\nIII. The
premature closure of growth centres of the long bones results in stunted growth.\nIV. The
growth centres of the long bones remain open indefinitely, leading to gigantism.
select the correct option:\n\nI. In adolescent males and females, severe facial and body acne can
occur.\nII. Premature closure of the growth centres of the long bones may occur.\nIII. The
premature closure of growth centres of the long bones results in stunted growth.\nIV. The
growth centres of the long bones remain open indefinitely, leading to gigantism.
236.Which of the following statements regarding the prevention and control of substance
abuse in adolescents are correct as per NCERT?\n\nI. Parenting that combines with high levels
of nurturance and consistent discipline is associated with lowered risk of substance abuse.\nII.
Every child has his/her own choice and personality, which should be respected and
nurtured.\nIII. To avoid undue peer pressure, a child should be pushed beyond his/her threshold
limits in academic performance to build resilience.\nIV. Identifying the situations that push
adolescents towards drug/alcohol use must be done well in time by parents and teachers.
abuse in adolescents are correct as per NCERT?\n\nI. Parenting that combines with high levels
of nurturance and consistent discipline is associated with lowered risk of substance abuse.\nII.
Every child has his/her own choice and personality, which should be respected and
nurtured.\nIII. To avoid undue peer pressure, a child should be pushed beyond his/her threshold
limits in academic performance to build resilience.\nIV. Identifying the situations that push
adolescents towards drug/alcohol use must be done well in time by parents and teachers.
237.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): It is vital that a child is never pushed unduly to perform
beyond his or her threshold limits in studies, sports, or other activities.\nReason (R): Seeking
immediate help from parents and peers helps the young to vent their feelings of anxiety and
guilt.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): It is vital that a child is never pushed unduly to perform
beyond his or her threshold limits in studies, sports, or other activities.\nReason (R): Seeking
immediate help from parents and peers helps the young to vent their feelings of anxiety and
guilt.
238.Read the statements regarding education and counselling in drug abuse prevention and
select the correct option:\n\nI. Educating and counselling the child to face problems and stresses
is a key preventive measure.\nII. Accepting disappointments and failures as a part of life must
be taught as part of education and counselling.\nIII. A child's energy should be channelised into
healthy pursuits like sports, reading, music, yoga, and other extracurricular activities.\nIV.
Energy should be channelised primarily into intense competition to ensure the child has no time
for distractions.
select the correct option:\n\nI. Educating and counselling the child to face problems and stresses
is a key preventive measure.\nII. Accepting disappointments and failures as a part of life must
be taught as part of education and counselling.\nIII. A child's energy should be channelised into
healthy pursuits like sports, reading, music, yoga, and other extracurricular activities.\nIV.
Energy should be channelised primarily into intense competition to ensure the child has no time
for distractions.
239.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Friends who find an adolescent using drugs or alcohol should
not hesitate to bring this to the notice of parents or teachers.\nReason (R): Early reporting
allows for the diagnosis of the malady and its underlying causes, which helps in initiating proper
remedial steps or treatment.
as Reason (R):\n\nAssertion (A): Friends who find an adolescent using drugs or alcohol should
not hesitate to bring this to the notice of parents or teachers.\nReason (R): Early reporting
allows for the diagnosis of the malady and its underlying causes, which helps in initiating proper
remedial steps or treatment.
240.Which of the following statements regarding professional and medical help for substance
abuse are correct according to NCERT?\n\nI. Help is available in the form of highly qualified
psychologists, psychiatrists, and de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes.\nII. With
professional help, sufficient efforts, and willpower, the affected individual can get rid of the
problem completely.\nIII. Recovered individuals can lead a perfectly normal and healthy
life.\nIV. Professional help is only effective for mild drug abuse and cannot help individuals in a
severe 'quagmire' of abuse.
abuse are correct according to NCERT?\n\nI. Help is available in the form of highly qualified
psychologists, psychiatrists, and de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes.\nII. With
professional help, sufficient efforts, and willpower, the affected individual can get rid of the
problem completely.\nIII. Recovered individuals can lead a perfectly normal and healthy
life.\nIV. Professional help is only effective for mild drug abuse and cannot help individuals in a
severe 'quagmire' of abuse.
Answer Key
11
22
32
44
51
64
74
81
93
104
111
124
134
144
152
162
174
182
193
204
214
222
233
241
253
263
272
281
291
301
311
321
333
344
352
363
374
383
393
403
413
421
432
441
453
464
472
484
493
504
514
523
533
544
553
564
574
583
593
602
613
621
632
641
654
664
673
681
693
703
713
721
734
744
751
763
772
784
793
801
814
823
834
843
853
862
872
884
893
903
911
922
934
943
953
962
971
982
992
1003
1012
1024
1032
1044
1051
1061
1072
1082
1093
1102
1111
1122
1134
1141
1152
1164
1171
1184
1192
1203
1213
1222
1232
1241
1251
1262
1271
1282
1291
1302
1314
1321
1331
1343
1352
1361
1371
1381
1393
1401
1414
1421
1433
1443
1453
1463
1472
1483
1491
1504
1511
1524
1532
1544
1552
1562
1574
1582
1593
1604
1614
1623
1631
1643
1651
1663
1672
1684
1691
1701
1713
1724
1734
1741
1754
1762
1771
1784
1792
1802
1814
1824
1831
1844
1851
1862
1871
1883
1894
1901
1911
1924
1932
1941
1952
1963
1972
1984
1992
2004
2014
2021
2033
2043
2053
2063
2071
2082
2092
2103
2112
2124
2134
2141
2153
2162
2174
2181
2193
2201
2213
2222
2234
2244
2252
2262
2271
2284
2292
2304
2314
2321
2331
2344
2352
2361
2372
2383
2392
2404