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NEET ]1[ Contd...

Reproductive Health NEET

Duration: 180 minutesTotal Marks: 600Questions: 150Negative Marking: -1

Instructions:

  1. Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
  2. Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
  3. Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
  4. Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Given below are statements about reproductive health. Which are correct?
A. It refers only to structurally normal reproductive organs.
B. It includes emotional and social aspects of reproduction.
C. It includes behavioural aspects according to WHO.
D. A reproductively healthy society requires normal sex-related emotional interactions.
(1)A and B only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
2.India's family planning programmes were initiated in which year according to the chapter?
(1)1947
(2)1951
(3)1971
(4)2011
3.Which of the following is the current popular name for the improved programmes covering wider reproduction-related areas?
(1)Medical Termination of Pregnancy programme
(2)Reproductive and Child Health Care programme
(3)National Immunisation-only programme
(4)In-vitro Fertilisation programme
4.The two major tasks under RCH programmes are best represented by which option?
(1)Only legalising MTP and banning contraception
(2)Creating awareness and providing facilities/support
(3)Only reducing school-level sex education
(4)Only developing ART centres in urban areas
5.Match the awareness agents/actions with their role.
A. Audio-visual and print media
B. Parents, teachers and friends
C. Sex education in schools
D. Correct adolescent information
(1)A-government/NGO awareness; B-dissemination; C-discourages myths; D-healthy reproductive life
(2)A-only medical care; B-legal enforcement; C-increases myths; D-delays counselling
(3)A-ART only; B-MTP only; C-bans RCH; D-not adolescent-related
(4)A-amniocentesis; B-contraceptive failure; C-IUD insertion; D-IVF transfer
6.Which of the following is NOT listed as an education point for fertile couples or those in marriageable age group?
(1)Available birth-control options
(2)Post-natal care of mother and child
(3)Equal opportunities for male and female child
(4)Artificial insemination as the only compulsory option
7.Successful implementation of RCH action plans requires which combination?
(1)Strong infrastructure, professional expertise and material support
(2)Only posters and legal punishment
(3)Only contraceptives without counselling
(4)Only IVF laboratories in cities
8.Which group of reproduction-related problems is included under medical assistance/care in RCH?
(1)Pregnancy, delivery, STDs, abortions, contraception, menstrual problems and infertility
(2)Only pregnancy and delivery
(3)Only population census and slogans
(4)Only adoption and orphan care
9.Which is NOT an indicator of improved reproductive health according to the chapter?
(1)Increased medically assisted deliveries
(2)Decreased maternal and infant mortality rates
(3)Better detection and cure of STDs
(4)Increase in unsafe abortions by quacks
10.Assertion (A): Sex education in schools should be encouraged.

Reason (R): It helps provide right information and discourages myths and misconceptions about sex-related aspects.
(1)Both A and R are true, and R explains A
(2)Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3)A is true, R is false
(4)A is false, R is true
11.Which statement contradicts the uploaded PDF?
(1)RCH programmes include awareness and support facilities.
(2)NGOs can help create awareness.
(3)Sex education is discouraged because it promotes misconceptions.
(4)Parents and teachers have a role in dissemination of information.
12.Choose the correct combination of socially responsible awareness targets.
A. Uncontrolled population growth
B. Sex-abuse
C. Sex-related crimes
D. Suppression of adolescent information
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
13.Which statement is correct about research in reproduction-related areas?
(1)It is discouraged once RCH starts.
(2)It is supported by governmental and non-governmental agencies to find new or improved methods.
(3)It is limited to illegal MTP only.
(4)It is unrelated to contraceptive development.
14.Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
(1)Family planning initiation — 1951
(2)MTP legalised in India — 1971
(3)World population in 2011 — 7.2 billion
(4)Saheli developed at WHO headquarters — true
15.Which line of reasoning is closest to the PDF's view of reproductive health?
(1)Only producing many children makes a society reproductively healthy.
(2)Organ health, functional normality and emotional/behavioural interactions together matter.
(3)Sex-related behaviour is outside reproductive health.
(4)Medical facilities are unnecessary once awareness is created.
16.A student says: 'Amniocentesis is banned in India.' What is the precise correction?
(1)All amniocentesis is banned.
(2)Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned; diagnostic uses exist.
(3)Only amniocentesis for Down syndrome is banned.
(4)Amniocentesis is a contraceptive method.
17.Which factor combination probably contributed to population growth in India as described in the chapter?
(1)Rapid decline in death rate, MMR and IMR plus more people in reproducible age
(2)Increase in death rate and decline in living conditions
(3)Fall in reproductive age group and rise in infant mortality
(4)Complete failure of health facilities
18.World population values in the chapter are correctly arranged as:
(1)1900—6 billion; 2000—2 billion; 2011—7.2 billion
(2)1900—2 billion; 2000—6 billion; 2011—7.2 billion
(3)1900—7.2 billion; 2000—6 billion; 2011—2 billion
(4)1900—2 billion; 2000—7.2 billion; 2011—6 billion
19.India's population trend in the chapter is:
(1)350 million at independence → close to one billion by 2000 → crossed 1.2 billion in May 2011
(2)1.2 billion at independence → 350 million by 2000 → one billion by 2011
(3)350 million in 1900 → 6 billion by 2000 → 7.2 billion by 2011
(4)One billion at independence → 350 million by 2011
20.According to the 2011 census report in the chapter, population growth rate was:
(1)More than 5%, i.e., 50/1000/year
(2)Less than 2%, i.e., 20/1000/year
(3)Exactly zero due to RCH
(4)Less than 0.2%, i.e., 2/1000/year
21.The slogan 'Hum Do Hamare Do' is translated in the chapter as:
(1)One child only
(2)We two, our two
(3)Healthy mother, healthy child
(4)No family planning
22.Which statement is correct about RCH impact on population growth rate?
(1)It made population growth rate zero.
(2)It brought down the growth rate only marginally.
(3)It doubled death rate intentionally.
(4)It is unrelated to population growth.
23.Select the correct statements.
A. Improved health facilities can contribute to population explosion.
B. Better living conditions were linked with population growth.
C. Decline in IMR can be a probable reason for population growth.
D. Decline in death rate always causes immediate scarcity of food only.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
24.Which measure is NOT mentioned in the chapter for tackling population growth?
(1)Raising legal marriageable age
(2)Incentives for small families
(3)Motivating smaller families using contraceptives
(4)Compulsory vasectomy for every adult male
25.A couple adopts 'one child norm' in the chapter's context. Which description fits them best?
(1)Mostly young, urban, working couples
(2)Only infertile couples after ART
(3)Only couples undergoing MTP
(4)Only couples with STIs
26.An ideal contraceptive should have all EXCEPT:
(1)User-friendliness
(2)Easy availability
(3)Effectiveness and reversibility
(4)Compulsory interference with sexual act
27.Which option lists the broad groups of contraceptive methods given in the chapter?
(1)Natural/traditional, barrier, IUDs, oral contraceptives, injectables, implants and surgical methods
(2)Only natural and surgical methods
(3)Only IUDs and MTP
(4)Only ART and adoption
28.Natural contraceptive methods are based mainly on:
(1)Destroying gametes inside the ovary
(2)Avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting
(3)Surgically removing gonads
(4)Making embryos outside the body
29.In periodic abstinence, couples avoid coitus during which days of the menstrual cycle?
(1)Day 1 to 5
(2)Day 10 to 17
(3)Day 21 to 28
(4)Only day 28
30.Day 10 to 17 is called the fertile period because:
(1)Menstruation always begins then
(2)Chances of fertilisation are very high
(3)Lactation starts then
(4)Implantation is impossible then
31.Withdrawal method is correctly described as:
(1)Female barrier covering cervix
(2)Male withdrawing penis just before ejaculation to avoid insemination
(3)Copper ion release in uterus
(4)Removal of fallopian tube through abdomen
32.Lactational amenorrhea is based on:
(1)Regular ovulation during intense lactation
(2)Absence of ovulation and cycle during intense lactation after parturition
(3)Copper release from IUD
(4)Surgical blockage of vas deferens
33.Which statement about lactational amenorrhea is correct?
(1)It remains fully effective for several years.
(2)It is effective only up to a maximum of six months following parturition.
(3)It requires daily pills.
(4)It involves IUD insertion.
34.Natural methods have almost nil side effects because:
(1)No medicines or devices are used
(2)Surgery is compulsory
(3)They release hormones
(4)They are irreversible
35.Which statement is a major limitation of natural methods?
(1)They have high chances of failure.
(2)They are always more effective than sterilisation.
(3)They require surgical incision.
(4)They suppress sperm motility using copper ions.
36.Barrier methods prevent conception by:
(1)Physically preventing ovum and sperms from meeting
(2)Increasing reproductive age
(3)Stimulating ovulation
(4)Allowing semen entry into uterus
37.Condoms are made of thin:
(1)Copper wire
(2)Rubber/latex sheath
(3)Bone tissue
(4)Surgical silk only
38.For female condoms, the sheath covers:
(1)Only fallopian tube
(2)Vagina and cervix
(3)Ovary and uterus
(4)Vas deferens
39.Which condom-related statement is incorrect?
(1)Condoms can prevent semen entering the female reproductive tract.
(2)Nirodh is a popular male condom brand.
(3)Condoms provide additional protection from STIs and AIDS.
(4)Both male and female condoms are reusable contraceptives.
40.Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are inserted to cover the:
(1)Cervix
(2)Scrotum
(3)Vas deferens
(4)Ovum directly
41.Which pair is correctly matched?
(1)Diaphragms/cervical caps/vaults — reusable
(2)Condoms — reusable
(3)Spermicidal creams — decrease barrier efficiency
(4)Nirodh — female IUD
42.Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used with barriers to:
(1)Increase contraceptive efficiency
(2)Cause ovulation
(3)Make condoms reusable
(4)Transfer embryos
43.IUDs are inserted in the uterus through vagina by:
(1)Only the user at home
(2)Doctors or expert nurses
(3)Only parents
(4)Only pharmacists
44.Which set contains only IUD categories from the chapter?
(1)Non-medicated, copper-releasing, hormone-releasing
(2)Natural, barrier, surgical
(3)IVF, ZIFT, GIFT
(4)MTP, STI, ART
45.Identify the correctly matched IUD example.
(1)Lippes loop — copper-releasing IUD
(2)CuT — hormone-releasing IUD
(3)Progestasert — hormone-releasing IUD
(4)LNG-20 — non-medicated IUD
46.Which examples belong to copper-releasing IUDs?
(1)CuT, Cu7 and Multiload 375
(2)Lippes loop, Progestasert and LNG-20
(3)Saheli, Nirodh and GIFT
(4)Vasectomy, tubectomy and IUI
47.Which statement correctly describes a general effect of IUDs?
(1)They increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
(2)They always remove fallopian tubes.
(3)They fertilise ova in vitro.
(4)They are taken daily for 21 days.
48.Copper ions released by copper IUDs mainly:
(1)Suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity
(2)Increase sperm motility
(3)Cause embryo transfer
(4)Block vas deferens
49.Hormone-releasing IUDs act by:
(1)Making uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to sperms
(2)Increasing fertilising capacity of sperms
(3)Removing vas deferens
(4)Introducing semen into uterus
50.IUDs are ideal for females who want to:
(1)Delay pregnancy and/or space children
(2)Undergo vasectomy
(3)Produce ova by GIFT
(4)Avoid all medical advice
51.Which contraceptive is described as one of the most widely accepted methods in India?
(1)IUDs
(2)ICSI
(3)GIFT
(4)Amniocentesis
52.Oral contraceptive pills used by females contain small doses of:
(1)Only copper ions
(2)Progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations
(3)Sperm cells
(4)Amniotic fluid
53.The correct pill schedule in the chapter is:
(1)Daily for 21 days starting preferably within first five days of menstrual cycle, then 7-day gap
(2)Once a month after ovulation, then no gap
(3)Daily for 72 hours after coitus only
(4)One tablet every six months after parturition
54.Pills prevent conception by all EXCEPT:
(1)Inhibiting ovulation
(2)Inhibiting implantation
(3)Altering cervical mucus to prevent/retard sperm entry
(4)Cutting and tying vas deferens
55.Saheli is correctly described as:
(1)A steroidal daily pill with many side effects
(2)A non-steroidal once-a-week pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value
(3)A copper-releasing IUD
(4)A reusable female barrier
56.Progestogens alone or with estrogen can be used as:
(1)Injections or implants under the skin
(2)Only condoms
(3)Only amniocentesis fluid
(4)Only legal adoption
57.Compared with pills, injectables and implants have:
(1)Similar mode of action but much longer effective periods
(2)Opposite action and shorter periods
(3)No contraceptive value
(4)Only diagnostic use
58.Emergency contraception with progestogens/progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs is effective if administered within:
(1)12 weeks
(2)72 hours of coitus
(3)21 days of pill use
(4)Six months of parturition
59.Emergency contraceptives may be used to avoid pregnancy due to:
(1)Rape or casual unprotected intercourse
(2)Complete legal adoption
(3)In-vitro fertilisation
(4)Tubectomy reversal
60.Surgical methods of contraception are also called:
(1)Sterilisation
(2)Lactational amenorrhea
(3)Amniocentesis
(4)ICSI
61.Surgical contraception prevents conception mainly by:
(1)Blocking gamete transport
(2)Producing zygotes in laboratory
(3)Increasing sperm motility
(4)Increasing ovulation
62.Correct match for sterilisation procedure is:
(1)Male — tubectomy; female — vasectomy
(2)Male — vasectomy; female — tubectomy
(3)Male — GIFT; female — ICSI
(4)Male — IUD; female — condom
63.In vasectomy, the structure removed or tied is:
(1)Vas deferens
(2)Fallopian tube
(3)Cervix
(4)Ovary
64.In tubectomy, the structure removed or tied is:
(1)Vas deferens
(2)Fallopian tube
(3)Penis
(4)Cervix
65.Which statement about surgical methods is correct?
(1)They are highly effective but reversibility is very poor.
(2)They are least effective and easily reversible.
(3)They prevent gamete formation by removing gonads.
(4)They are natural methods with no intervention.
66.Selection and use of contraceptives should be done in consultation with:
(1)Qualified medical professionals
(2)Only social media advertisements
(3)Only friends without medical training
(4)No one, because all are risk-free
67.Which statement is closest to the chapter's warning about contraceptives?
(1)They are regular requirements for reproductive health.
(2)They are practiced against natural conception/pregnancy and are used to prevent, delay or space pregnancy.
(3)They have no possible side effects.
(4)They must be used without medical consultation.
68.Which possible ill-effect of contraceptives is NOT listed in the chapter?
(1)Nausea
(2)Breakthrough bleeding
(3)Irregular menstrual bleeding
(4)Permanent immunity against STIs
69.Assertion (A): Condoms have increased in use in recent years.

Reason (R): Condoms also help protect the user from contracting STIs and AIDS.
(1)Both A and R are true, and R explains A
(2)Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3)A is true, R is false
(4)A is false, R is true
70.Assertion (A): Lactational amenorrhea has almost nil chances of conception while the mother fully breast-feeds.

Reason (R): Ovulation and cycle do not occur during intense lactation following parturition.
(1)Both A and R are true, and R explains A
(2)Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3)A is true, R is false
(4)A is false, R is true
71.Assertion (A): IUDs are inserted by doctors or expert nurses.

Reason (R): IUD insertion is done in the uterus through vagina.
(1)Both A and R are true, and R explains the procedural context of A
(2)Both A and R are true, but R contradicts A
(3)A is true, R is false
(4)A is false, R is true
72.Select correct statements about condoms.
A. Male condom covers penis.
B. Female condom covers vagina and cervix.
C. Both are disposable.
D. Both are self-insertable and provide privacy.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
73.Which option contains the correct order for oral pills?
(1)Start preferably within first five days → take daily for 21 days → 7-day gap → repeat if contraception desired
(2)7-day gap → start on day 20 → take once weekly → stop forever
(3)Take within 72 hours → transfer zygote → repeat IVF
(4)Start after six months of lactation → take for one day only
74.Which is the correct pair for route/site in sterilisation?
(1)Vasectomy — small incision on scrotum; tubectomy — abdomen or through vagina
(2)Vasectomy — uterus through vagina; tubectomy — scrotum
(3)Vasectomy — fallopian tube via abdomen; tubectomy — vas deferens via scrotum
(4)Both are performed by inserting IUDs into uterus
75.Which combination contains only barrier methods mentioned in the chapter?
(1)Condoms, diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults
(2)IUDs, Saheli, implants and GIFT
(3)Vasectomy, tubectomy and ZIFT
(4)Amniocentesis, IVF and ICSI
76.Which is the correct contraceptive method-example pair?
(1)Natural — periodic abstinence
(2)Oral pill — Copper T
(3)IUD — Saheli
(4)Surgical — lactational amenorrhea
77.Which of the following cannot be inferred about natural methods from the PDF?
(1)They avoid ovum-sperm meeting.
(2)They have almost nil side effects.
(3)Their chance of failure is high.
(4)They are always more reliable than all other methods.
78.Which option correctly combines IUD action with example?
(1)CuT—copper ions suppress sperm motility; Progestasert—hormone-releasing IUD
(2)Lippes loop—hormone-releasing; Cu7—non-medicated
(3)LNG-20—copper-releasing; Multiload 375—hormone-releasing
(4)CuT—oral pill; Progestasert—condom
79.A student confuses MTP, contraception and ART. Which option is correct?
(1)Contraception prevents/delays/spaces pregnancy; ART assists infertile couples; MTP terminates pregnancy before full term
(2)Contraception terminates full-term pregnancy; ART prevents STIs; MTP inserts IUDs
(3)ART is identical to lactational amenorrhea
(4)MTP is a barrier method
80.Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is defined as:
(1)Voluntary/intentional termination of pregnancy before full term
(2)Fertilisation outside the body
(3)Transfer of ovum into fallopian tube
(4)Prevention of ovum-sperm meeting by barriers
81.Nearly how many MTPs are performed worldwide each year according to the chapter?
(1)4.5 to 5 million
(2)45 to 50 million
(3)450 to 500 million
(4)1.2 billion
82.MTPs worldwide account for approximately what fraction of conceived pregnancies in a year?
(1)One-tenth
(2)One-fifth
(3)Half
(4)Three-fourths
83.Which issues make acceptance/legalisation of MTP debated in many countries?
(1)Emotional, ethical, religious and social issues
(2)Only copper ion toxicity
(3)Only IUD availability
(4)Only condom disposal
84.Government of India legalised MTP in:
(1)1951
(2)1971
(3)2000
(4)2017 only
85.Strict conditions on MTP are especially important to check:
(1)Illegal female foeticides
(2)Condom self-insertion
(3)Legal adoption
(4)Breastfeeding
86.Which combination gives valid reasons for MTP as given in the chapter?
A. Casual unprotected intercourse
B. Failure of contraceptive used during coitus
C. Rape
D. Preference for sex determination
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
87.MTP is also essential when continuation of pregnancy could be harmful or fatal to:
(1)Only mother
(2)Only foetus
(3)Mother, foetus or both
(4)Only the doctor
88.MTP is considered relatively safe during:
(1)First trimester up to 12 weeks
(2)Second trimester only
(3)After 24 weeks always
(4)Only after full term
89.Compared to first trimester MTPs, second trimester abortions are:
(1)Much more risky
(2)Completely risk-free
(3)Illegal in every situation according to the PDF
(4)Identical in risk
90.Which dangerous trend is observed regarding MTPs?
(1)Majority performed illegally by unqualified quacks
(2)Majority performed as legal adoption
(3)All performed by IVF specialists
(4)All performed only during first week
91.Misuse of amniocentesis followed by MTP of a female foetus is:
(1)Totally legal if done early
(2)Against what is legal
(3)A natural contraceptive method
(4)A type of IUD action
92.Which strategy could reverse the unhealthy trend of illegal abortions?
(1)Effective counselling against unprotected coitus and illegal-abortion risks plus more health-care facilities
(2)Encouraging quacks
(3)Stopping all health care
(4)Using amniocentesis for sex selection
93.The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 was enacted with the intention of reducing:
(1)Illegal abortion and consequent maternal mortality/morbidity
(2)Contraceptive awareness
(3)Breastfeeding
(4)Legal adoption
94.Under the Act mentioned in the chapter, termination within the first 12 weeks requires the opinion of:
(1)One registered medical practitioner
(2)Two registered medical practitioners
(3)One unqualified quack
(4)No medical opinion
95.For pregnancy lasting more than 12 weeks but fewer than 24 weeks, the Act requires:
(1)Opinion of two registered medical practitioners in good faith
(2)No medical opinion
(3)Only consent of a school teacher
(4)Opinion of one unqualified quack
96.Which is a ground for termination under the Act as given in the chapter?
(1)Risk to life of pregnant woman or grave injury to physical/mental health
(2)Preference for a male child
(3)Avoiding breastfeeding
(4)Increasing population growth
97.Which is another ground for termination mentioned in the Act sidebar?
(1)Substantial risk of serious physical or mental abnormalities in the child if born
(2)Child would be female
(3)Couple wants one-child norm after delivery
(4)Use of condoms failed in every case
98.Assertion (A): Second trimester abortions are more risky.

Reason (R): The chapter considers MTP relatively safe during the first trimester up to 12 weeks.
(1)Both A and R are true, and R supports A
(2)Both A and R are true, but R contradicts A
(3)A is true, R is false
(4)A is false, R is true
99.Choose the incorrect statement about MTP.
(1)MTP means induced abortion.
(2)MTP was legalised in India in 1971 with strict conditions.
(3)MTP for female foeticide after sex determination is legal and encouraged.
(4)MTP may be needed when pregnancy endangers the mother or foetus.
100.Which option correctly differentiates MTP from contraception?
(1)MTP terminates pregnancy before full term; contraception prevents conception/pregnancy.
(2)MTP prevents sperm entry only; contraception terminates full-term pregnancy.
(3)Both are names for IVF.
(4)Both require transfer of embryo into fallopian tube.
101.A case involves pregnancy of 18 weeks. According to the Act summary in the chapter, which statement is closest?
(1)It falls in the more than 12 but fewer than 24 weeks category needing opinions of two registered medical practitioners on valid grounds.
(2)It requires no opinion because it is below 24 weeks.
(3)It is treated as first 12 weeks.
(4)It must be done by an unqualified quack.
102.Diseases transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called:
(1)STIs/VD/RTI
(2)IUDs only
(3)ART only
(4)MTP only
103.Which set contains only STIs mentioned in the chapter?
(1)Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis
(2)GIFT, ZIFT, ICSI, IVF
(3)Saheli, CuT, Nirodh, Lippes loop
(4)Vasectomy, tubectomy, lactation, adoption
104.Among the STIs listed, the chapter calls which infection most dangerous?
(1)Chlamydiasis
(2)HIV infection
(3)Trichomoniasis
(4)Genital warts
105.Hepatitis-B and HIV can also be transmitted by all EXCEPT:
(1)Sharing injection needles with infected persons
(2)Transfusion of blood
(3)From infected mother to foetus
(4)Using a clean unused textbook
106.Except for which infections, other listed STIs are completely curable if detected early and treated properly?
(1)Hepatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV
(2)Gonorrhoea, syphilis and chlamydiasis
(3)Trichomoniasis, genital warts and gonorrhoea
(4)All STIs without exception
107.Early symptoms of most STIs include:
(1)Itching, fluid discharge, slight pain and swellings in genital region
(2)Immediate severe paralysis in all cases
(3)Only hair fall
(4)Only high fever with no genital symptoms
108.Infected females may often remain undetected for long because they may be:
(1)Asymptomatic
(2)Always severely symptomatic
(3)Immune to all STIs
(4)Unable to transmit infections
109.What deters timely detection and treatment of STIs?
(1)Absence/less significant early symptoms and social stigma
(2)Excessive early diagnosis and no stigma
(3)Legal adoption
(4)IUD insertion by doctors
110.Which complication is NOT listed for untreated STIs?
(1)Pelvic inflammatory diseases
(2)Ectopic pregnancies
(3)Infertility
(4)Guaranteed immunity to HIV
111.STIs are given prime consideration in reproductive health-care programmes because:
(1)They are a major threat to a healthy society
(2)They are always symptomless and harmless
(3)They are contraceptive devices
(4)They are ART procedures
112.STI incidence is reported very high among which age group?
(1)0-5 years
(2)15-24 years
(3)45-60 years
(4)Above 80 years only
113.Which is NOT one of the simple STI-prevention principles given?
(1)Avoid sex with unknown/multiple partners
(2)Always try to use condoms during coitus
(3)Consult qualified doctor in case of doubt
(4)Share injection needles to build immunity
114.Assertion (A): Infected females may remain undetected for long.

Reason (R): They may often be asymptomatic.
(1)Both A and R are true, and R explains A
(2)Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3)A is true, R is false
(4)A is false, R is true
115.Assertion (A): STIs need early detection and treatment.

Reason (R): Delayed treatment can lead to PID, abortions, still births, ectopic pregnancies, infertility or cancer of reproductive tract.
(1)Both A and R are true, and R explains A
(2)Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3)A is true, R is false
(4)A is false, R is true
116.Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
(1)HIV — may lead to AIDS
(2)Hepatitis-B — can be transmitted through infected blood
(3)Genital herpes — completely curable in all cases according to chapter
(4)Gonorrhoea — listed STI
117.Which option has the correct STI prevention sequence in a doubtful case?
(1)Ignore symptoms due to stigma
(2)Go to a qualified doctor for early detection and complete treatment if diagnosed
(3)Use amniocentesis for detection
(4)Wait until infertility occurs
118.Select the correct statements about STIs.
A. Social stigma can delay treatment.
B. Early symptoms may be minor.
C. All listed STIs are completely curable without exception.
D. Prevention includes condoms during coitus.
(1)A, B and D only
(2)A and C only
(3)B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
119.Which conclusion is valid from the PDF's STI discussion?
(1)Condoms help in both contraception and STI/AIDS protection.
(2)Condoms are used only for ART.
(3)STIs are unrelated to reproductive health-care programmes.
(4)HIV is the least dangerous STI listed.
120.Infertility is inability to produce children despite:
(1)Unprotected sexual co-habitation
(2)Condom use in every coitus
(3)Legal adoption
(4)IUD insertion
121.Which set contains causes of infertility mentioned in the chapter?
(1)Physical, congenital, diseases, drugs, immunological and psychological
(2)Only female laziness
(3)Only legal issues
(4)Only lack of condoms
122.The chapter corrects which social misconception about infertility in India?
(1)Female is often blamed, but more often the problem lies in the male partner.
(2)Male partner is never involved.
(3)Only women can have infertility-related problems.
(4)Infertility is always due to STIs only.
123.Specialised health-care units such as infertility clinics can help by:
(1)Diagnosis and corrective treatment of some disorders
(2)Guaranteeing a child in every case without treatment
(3)Banning all ART
(4)Performing sex determination
124.When correction is not possible, couples may be assisted through:
(1)Assisted reproductive technologies
(2)Only illegal MTP
(3)Only amniocentesis
(4)Only population slogans
125.IVF is best defined as:
(1)Fertilisation outside the body in almost similar conditions as inside the body
(2)Sperm injection into uterus only
(3)Legal adoption
(4)Blocking gamete transport
126.IVF-ET is popularly known as:
(1)Test tube baby programme
(2)Nirodh programme
(3)Lactational programme
(4)Amniocentesis programme
127.In IVF, ova and sperms may be collected respectively from:
(1)Wife/donor female and husband/donor male
(2)Only foetus and mother
(3)Only cervix and scrotum
(4)Only IUD and condom
128.ZIFT involves transfer of:
(1)Zygote or early embryos up to 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube
(2)Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into uterus
(3)Semen into vagina
(4)Ovum into uterus only
129.IUT involves transfer of embryos with:
(1)More than 8 blastomeres into uterus
(2)Up to 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube
(3)No blastomeres into scrotum
(4)Semen into cervix only
130.Which statement correctly differentiates ZIFT and IUT?
(1)ZIFT: up to 8 blastomeres to fallopian tube; IUT: more than 8 blastomeres to uterus
(2)ZIFT: more than 8 blastomeres to uterus; IUT: up to 8 blastomeres to fallopian tube
(3)Both introduce semen into vagina
(4)Both are natural contraception
131.Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation can also be used for transfer to assist females who:
(1)Cannot conceive
(2)Want only contraception
(3)Need condom fitting
(4)Have no reproductive tract
132.GIFT is correctly described as transfer of:
(1)Ovum from donor into fallopian tube of a female who cannot produce one but can support fertilisation and development
(2)Sperm directly into ovum
(3)Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into uterus
(4)Semen into uterus only
133.ICSI forms an embryo by:
(1)Directly injecting a sperm into the ovum in laboratory
(2)Transferring ovum into fallopian tube
(3)Cutting fallopian tube
(4)Using copper ions to suppress motility
134.Artificial insemination can help when infertility is due to:
(1)Male inability to inseminate or very low sperm count
(2)Excessive copper release
(3)Female condom use
(4)Legal adoption only
135.In artificial insemination, semen is collected from:
(1)Husband or healthy donor
(2)Only foetus
(3)Only ovary
(4)Only uterus
136.IUI means:
(1)Intra-uterine insemination
(2)Intra-uterine implantation
(3)In-vitro uterine infection
(4)Intra-umbilical injection
137.Why are ART facilities available only in very few centres, according to the chapter?
(1)They require high precision handling, specialised professionals and expensive instrumentation
(2)They are simple home procedures
(3)They require no instruments
(4)They are prohibited in every case
138.Which factors deter adoption of ART methods?
(1)Emotional, religious and social factors
(2)Only copper ions
(3)Only condom disposal
(4)Only school sex education
139.Legal adoption is presented in the chapter as:
(1)One of the best methods for couples looking for parenthood
(2)An illegal method in India
(3)A contraceptive method that suppresses sperm motility
(4)A method to terminate pregnancy
140.Assertion (A): ART techniques are not widely available everywhere in the country.

Reason (R): They require high precision, specialised professionals and expensive instrumentation.
(1)Both A and R are true, and R explains A
(2)Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3)A is true, R is false
(4)A is false, R is true
141.Match the ART term with the correct description.
A. IVF
B. ZIFT
C. ICSI
D. AI
(1)A-fertilisation outside body; B-up to 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube; C-sperm injected into ovum; D-semen introduced into vagina/uterus
(2)A-sperm injected into ovum; B-legal adoption; C-copper IUD; D-tubectomy
(3)A-natural method; B-condom; C-MTP; D-amniocentesis
(4)A-zygote into uterus only; B-semen into scrotum; C-fallopian tube tied; D-IUD inserted
142.Which option correctly identifies GIFT vs ICSI?
(1)GIFT transfers donor ovum into fallopian tube; ICSI injects sperm directly into ovum
(2)GIFT injects sperm into ovum; ICSI transfers donor ovum into fallopian tube
(3)Both are surgical sterilisation
(4)Both are STI prevention methods
143.A male partner has very low sperm count. Which method from the PDF is specifically mentioned as corrective?
(1)Artificial insemination
(2)Lactational amenorrhea
(3)Tubectomy
(4)Periodic abstinence
144.Which long option is completely correct?
A. IVF is fertilisation outside the body.
B. ZIFT may transfer early embryos up to 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube.
C. IUT transfers embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into uterus.
D. ICSI injects sperm directly into ovum.
(1)A and B only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
145.Which statement is incorrect about infertility as presented in the PDF?
(1)It may have psychological causes.
(2)In India, females are often blamed.
(3)The problem more often lies in the male partner.
(4)Infertility is always due to abnormalities in the female partner.
146.Which option is a valid assisted-reproduction or parenthood route from the chapter?
(1)Infertility clinic diagnosis/correction, ART when correction is not possible, or legal adoption
(2)Sex determination followed by MTP
(3)Sharing needles
(4)Avoiding qualified doctors
147.Which statement about semen placement in AI is correct?
(1)It may be introduced into the vagina or into the uterus.
(2)It is introduced into the fallopian tube only after 8 blastomeres.
(3)It is injected into a condom.
(4)It is placed into the scrotum.
148.A woman cannot produce an ovum but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development. Which method fits the chapter?
(1)GIFT
(2)ICSI
(3)Vasectomy
(4)MTP
149.Which of the following is NOT an ART method described in the chapter?
(1)IVF-ET
(2)ZIFT
(3)ICSI
(4)Nirodh
150.Choose the most NCERT-faithful statement about the final parenthood option discussed.
(1)Legal adoption is permitted in India and is one of the best methods for couples looking for parenthood.
(2)Adoption is illegal in India.
(3)Adoption is only a contraceptive method.
(4)Adoption is mentioned as an STI treatment.
NEET ]150[ Contd...

Answer Key

12
22
32
42
51
64
71
81
94
101
113
121
132
144
152
162
171
182
191
202
212
222
231
244
251
264
271
282
292
302
312
322
332
341
351
361
372
382
394
401
411
421
432
441
453
461
471
481
491
501
511
522
531
544
552
561
571
582
591
601
611
622
631
642
651
661
672
684
691
701
711
724
731
741
751
761
774
781
791
801
812
822
831
842
851
861
873
881
891
901
912
921
931
941
951
961
971
981
993
1001
1011
1021
1031
1042
1054
1061
1071
1081
1091
1104
1111
1122
1134
1141
1151
1163
1172
1181
1191
1201
1211
1221
1231
1241
1251
1261
1271
1281
1291
1301
1311
1321
1331
1341
1351
1361
1371
1381
1391
1401
1411
1421
1431
1444
1454
1461
1471
1481
1494
1501