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NEET ]1[ Contd...

NEET UG Biology Chapter7

Duration: 180 minutesTotal Marks: 600Questions: 150Negative Marking: -1

Instructions:

  1. Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
  2. Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
  3. Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
  4. Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Earlier views considered health as balance of certain humors, as asserted by early Greeks like Hippocrates and Indian Ayurveda.
B. The blackbile-hot personality-fever idea was disproved by experimental observations including Harvey's blood circulation work and thermometer observations.
C. Mind influences the immune system through neural and endocrine systems, so mental state can affect health.
D. Earlier views considered health as complete absence of pathogens only, as asserted by early Greeks like Hippocrates and Indian Ayurveda.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
2.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Health is affected by genetic disorders, infections and lifestyle including food, water, rest, exercise and habits.
B. Health does not simply mean absence of disease or physical fitness; it is complete physical, mental and social well-being.
C. Good health increases work efficiency, productivity, economic prosperity, longevity and reduces infant and maternal mortality.
D. Health is affected by diet alone including food, water, rest, exercise and habits.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
3.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are important for maintaining good health.
B. Yoga has been practised since time immemorial to achieve physical and mental health.
C. Disease is present when one or more organs/systems are adversely affected with signs and symptoms.
D. Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are described as unnecessary for good health.
(1)A and D only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A, B and C only
4.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Diseases can be broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases.
B. Infectious diseases are easily transmitted from one person to another.
C. AIDS is an example of a fatal infectious disease, while cancer is a major non-infectious cause of death.
D. Diseases can be broadly grouped into congenital and nutritional only diseases.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
5.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Disease-causing organisms belonging to bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans and helminths are called pathogens.
B. Most parasites are pathogens because they harm the host by living in or on them.
C. Pathogens enter the body by various means, multiply and interfere with vital activities causing morphological and functional damage.
D. Disease-causing organisms belonging to only bacteria are called pathogens.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)B, C and D only
6.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Gut-entering pathogens must survive low stomach pH and resist digestive enzymes.
B. Salmonella typhi is the pathogenic bacterium causing typhoid fever in humans.
C. Typhoid pathogens generally enter the small intestine through contaminated food and water and migrate to other organs via blood.
D. Gut-entering pathogens must survive high blood pressure and resist digestive enzymes.
(1)A and D only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
7.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Typhoid symptoms include sustained high fever of 39°–40°C, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite.
B. Severe typhoid may cause intestinal perforation and death; Widal test confirms typhoid fever.
C. Mary Mallon, Typhoid Mary, was a cook and typhoid carrier who spread typhoid through food for years.
D. Typhoid symptoms include sustained high fever of 25°–26°C, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
8.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae cause pneumonia in humans.
B. Pneumonia infects alveoli; alveoli get filled with fluid causing severe respiratory problems.
C. Pneumonia symptoms include fever, chills, cough and headache; severe cases may show gray to bluish lips and fingernails.
D. Plasmodium vivax and Entamoeba histolytica cause pneumonia in humans.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A and D only
9.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Pneumonia spreads by inhaling droplets/aerosols from infected persons or by sharing glasses and utensils.
B. Dysentery, plague and diphtheria are other bacterial diseases in humans.
C. Rhino viruses cause the common cold, one of the most infectious human ailments.
D. Pneumonia spreads by inhaling mosquito bite only from infected persons or by sharing glasses and utensils.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
10.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Rhino viruses infect the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
B. Common cold symptoms include nasal congestion/discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache and tiredness, usually lasting 3–7 days.
C. Common cold spreads by droplets from cough/sneezes or contaminated objects like pens, books, cups, doorknobs, keyboard or mouse.
D. Papaver somniferum infect the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B and C only
11.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Plasmodium is a protozoan responsible for malaria; species include P. vivax, P. malariae and P. falciparum.
B. Malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious type and may be fatal.
C. Plasmodium enters humans as sporozoites through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito.
D. Wuchereria is a protozoan responsible for malaria; species include P. vivax, P. malariae and P. falciparum.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A and D only
12.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. The parasite initially multiplies in liver cells and then attacks RBCs, causing their rupture.
B. RBC rupture releases haemozoin, causing chills and high fever recurring every three to four days.
C. Female Anopheles mosquito becomes infected by biting an infected person; parasite develops in mosquito to form sporozoites stored in salivary glands.
D. The parasite initially multiplies in bone marrow cells and then attacks RBCs, causing their rupture.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
13.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. The malarial parasite requires two hosts: human and mosquito; female Anopheles is also the vector.
B. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite of the large intestine causing amoebiasis/amoebic dysentery.
C. Amoebiasis symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, and stools with excess mucus and blood clots.
D. The malarial parasite requires two hosts: human and mosquito; male Culex is also the vector.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)B, C and D only
14.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Houseflies act as mechanical carriers transferring Entamoeba from infected faeces to food and food products.
B. Contaminated drinking water and food contaminated by faecal matter are main sources of amoebiasis infection.
C. Ascaris is the common roundworm, an intestinal parasite causing ascariasis.
D. Female Anopheles mosquitoes act as mechanical carriers transferring Entamoeba from infected faeces to food and food products.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
15.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Ascariasis symptoms include internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and intestinal blockage.
B. Ascaris eggs pass in faeces and contaminate soil, water and plants; healthy persons acquire infection through contaminated water, vegetables and fruits.
C. Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi are filarial worms causing elephantiasis/filariasis.
D. Ascariasis symptoms are limited to nasal congestion and hoarseness lasting 3–7 days.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)B, C and D only
16.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Filariasis is slowly developing chronic inflammation, usually of lymphatic vessels of lower limbs; genital organs may also be affected.
B. Filariasis pathogens are transmitted through the bite of female mosquito vectors.
C. Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are fungi causing ringworm.
D. Filariasis is slowly developing chronic inflammation, usually of lymphatic vessels of upper jaw only; genital organs may also be affected.
(1)A and D only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
17.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Ringworm shows dry, scaly lesions on skin, nails and scalp with intense itching.
B. Heat and moisture help ringworm fungi grow, especially in skin folds like groin or between toes.
C. Ringworm is acquired from soil or by using towels, clothes or combs of infected individuals.
D. Ringworm shows fluid-filled alveoli on skin, nails and scalp with intense itching.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
18.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Personal hygiene includes keeping the body clean and consuming clean drinking water, food, vegetables and fruits.
B. Public hygiene includes proper waste/excreta disposal, cleaning/disinfecting water reservoirs, pools, cesspools and tanks, and standard hygiene in public catering.
C. Food- and water-borne diseases like typhoid, amoebiasis and ascariasis require personal and public hygiene measures.
D. Personal hygiene excludes clean drinking water and clean food.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
19.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. For airborne diseases like pneumonia and common cold, close contact with infected persons or belongings should be avoided.
B. For malaria and filariasis, the most important measure is control or elimination of insect vectors and breeding places.
C. Vector control includes preventing water stagnation, cleaning coolers, mosquito nets, Gambusia in ponds, insecticide spraying and wire mesh on doors/windows.
D. For airborne diseases like cancer and rheumatoid arthritis, close contact with infected persons or belongings should be avoided.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
20.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Aedes-borne diseases such as dengue and chikungunya make mosquito precautions more important in India.
B. Vaccines and immunisation programmes enabled complete eradication of smallpox.
C. Vaccines have controlled polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and tetanus to a large extent.
D. Aedes-borne diseases such as typhoid and ascariasis make mosquito precautions more important in India.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)B, C and D only
21.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Biotechnology is approaching newer and safer vaccines; antibiotics and other drugs help treat infectious diseases.
B. Immunity is the host's overall ability, conferred by the immune system, to fight disease-causing organisms.
C. Immunity is of two types: innate and acquired.
D. Antibiotics and other drugs have not helped in treating infectious diseases.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)B, C and D only
22.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Innate immunity is non-specific defence present at birth.
B. Innate immunity works through four barriers: physical, physiological, cellular and cytokine barriers.
C. Physical barriers include skin and mucus coating of respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital epithelia.
D. Innate immunity is pathogen-specific defence acquired only after infection.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
23.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Physiological barriers include acid in stomach, saliva in mouth and tears from eyes preventing microbial growth.
B. Cellular barriers include PMNL-neutrophils, monocytes, natural killer cells and tissue macrophages that phagocytose/destroy microbes.
C. Cytokine barriers include interferons secreted by virus-infected cells to protect non-infected cells from viral infection.
D. Physiological barriers include RBC rupture and haemozoin from eyes preventing microbial growth.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
24.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific and characterised by memory.
B. Primary response on first pathogen encounter is low intensity.
C. Secondary/anamnestic response on subsequent encounter with the same pathogen is highly intensified due to memory.
D. Acquired immunity is non-specific and lacks memory.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
25.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes carry out primary and secondary immune responses.
B. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies in blood in response to pathogens.
C. T-cells do not secrete antibodies but help B cells produce them.
D. RBCs and platelets carry out primary and secondary immune responses.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)B, C and D only
26.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Each antibody molecule has two light chains and two heavy chains, represented as H2L2.
B. IgA, IgM, IgE and IgG are antibody types produced in the body.
C. Antibody-mediated response is called humoral immune response because antibodies are found in blood.
D. Each antibody molecule has two light chains and two heavy chains, represented as H4L4.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A and D only
27.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Cell-mediated immunity is mediated by T-lymphocytes.
B. Tissue and blood group matching are essential before graft/transplant, and immunosuppressants are needed after transplant.
C. Cell-mediated immune response is responsible for graft rejection because the body differentiates self and non-self.
D. Humoral immunity is mediated by T-lymphocytes.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B and C only
28.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Active immunity occurs when host exposure to antigens induces antibody production in the host body.
B. Active immunity is slow and takes time to give full effective response.
C. Immunisation with microbes or natural infection can induce active immunity.
D. Passive immunity occurs when host exposure to antigens induces antibody production in the host body.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B and C only
29.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Passive immunity occurs when ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect against foreign agents.
B. Colostrum from mother in early lactation contains abundant IgA antibodies to protect the infant.
C. The foetus receives some maternal antibodies through the placenta during pregnancy.
D. Passive immunity occurs when ready-made pathogens are directly given to protect against foreign agents.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
30.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Vaccination/immunisation is based on memory of the immune system.
B. Vaccines contain antigenic proteins of pathogen or inactivated/weakened pathogen introduced into the body.
C. Antibodies produced after vaccination neutralise pathogenic agents during actual infection.
D. Vaccination/immunisation is based on loss of immune memory.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
31.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Vaccines generate memory B and T cells that quickly recognise the pathogen and overwhelm invaders with antibodies on later exposure.
B. Tetanus and snakebite may require direct injection of preformed antibodies/antitoxin, a form of passive immunisation.
C. Recombinant DNA technology allows production of antigenic pathogen polypeptides in bacteria or yeast; hepatitis B vaccine is produced from yeast.
D. Vaccines generate memory RBCs and platelets that quickly recognise the pathogen and overwhelm invaders with antibodies on later exposure.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A and D only
32.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Allergy is the exaggerated immune response to certain environmental antigens; such substances are allergens.
B. IgE antibodies are produced against allergens; examples include dust mites, pollens and animal dander.
C. Allergic symptoms include sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and difficulty in breathing.
D. Allergy is absence of immune response to certain environmental antigens; such substances are allergens.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
33.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Allergy is due to release of histamine and serotonin from mast cells.
B. Possible allergens are tested by exposing/injecting the patient with very small doses and studying reactions.
C. Anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroids quickly reduce allergy symptoms.
D. Allergy is due to release of haemozoin and dopamine from mast cells.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)B, C and D only
34.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Autoimmunity occurs when, due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body attacks self-cells causing damage.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto-immune disease.
C. The immune system consists of lymphoid organs, tissues, cells and soluble molecules like antibodies.
D. Autoimmunity occurs when, due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body never recognises self-cells causing damage.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A and D only
35.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and thymus; immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes there.
B. Secondary lymphoid organs include spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine and appendix.
C. Secondary lymphoid organs are sites where lymphocytes interact with antigen and proliferate into effector cells.
D. Primary lymphoid organs are spleen and appendix; immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes there.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A and D only
(4)B, C and D only
36.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Bone marrow produces all blood cells including lymphocytes; thymus is near the heart beneath the breastbone and shrinks with age.
B. Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro-environments for development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
C. Spleen is a large bean-shaped organ containing lymphocytes and phagocytes; it filters blood-borne microbes and stores erythrocytes.
D. Bone marrow does not produce lymphocytes, and thymus enlarges continuously with age.
(1)A and D only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
37.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Lymph nodes trap microbes/antigens from lymph and tissue fluid and activate lymphocytes for immune response.
B. MALT is lymphoid tissue in respiratory, digestive and urogenital tract linings and constitutes about 50% of lymphoid tissue in humans.
C. AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome: immune deficiency acquired during lifetime, not congenital; syndrome means group of symptoms.
D. Lymph nodes do not trap antigens and do not activate lymphocytes.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
38.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. AIDS was first reported in 1981 and had spread worldwide in about twenty-five years, killing over 25 million persons.
B. AIDS is caused by HIV, a retrovirus with an envelope enclosing RNA genome.
C. HIV transmission occurs through sexual contact, contaminated blood/blood products, infected needles and infected mother to child through placenta.
D. AIDS was first reported in 1881 and had spread worldwide in about twenty-five years, killing over 25 million persons.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A and D only
39.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. High-risk groups include people with multiple sexual partners, intravenous drug addicts, people requiring repeated transfusions and children born to infected mothers.
B. HIV/AIDS is not spread by mere touch or physical contact; it spreads only through body fluids.
C. There is a time lag between HIV infection and AIDS symptoms, usually 5–10 years.
D. High-risk groups exclude intravenous drug users and children born to infected mothers.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
40.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. In macrophages, HIV RNA is copied to viral DNA by reverse transcriptase; viral DNA incorporates into host DNA and directs virus particle production.
B. Macrophages continue producing virus and act like HIV factories.
C. HIV enters helper T-lymphocytes, replicates and released progeny viruses attack other helper T-cells causing progressive decline.
D. In macrophages, HIV RNA is copied to viral DNA by amylase; viral DNA incorporates into host DNA and directs virus particle production.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
41.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. During HIV progression, patients may suffer fever, diarrhoea and weight loss, then opportunistic infections by Mycobacterium, viruses, fungi and Toxoplasma.
B. ELISA is a widely used diagnostic test for AIDS.
C. Anti-retroviral AIDS treatment is partially effective; it prolongs life but cannot prevent inevitable death as described in the text.
D. During HIV progression, helper T-cells increase and opportunistic infections disappear.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
42.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. AIDS prevention is the best option because there is no cure; NACO, NGOs and WHO work to educate/prevent spread.
B. AIDS prevention steps include safe blood, disposable needles/syringes, condom distribution, controlling drug abuse, safe sex and regular HIV checkups in susceptible populations.
C. Cancer involves breakdown of normal control over cell growth and differentiation.
D. AIDS prevention is the best option because there is no cure; IARI, NGOs and WHO work to educate/prevent spread.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
43.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Normal cells show contact inhibition; cancer cells lose this property and continue dividing to form tumors.
B. Benign tumors remain confined to original location, do not spread and cause little damage.
C. Malignant tumors are proliferating neoplastic cells that grow rapidly, invade/damage tissues and compete for nutrients.
D. Normal cells show uncontrolled migration only; cancer cells lose this property and continue dividing to form tumors.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
44.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Metastasis is the spread of sloughed tumor cells via blood to distant sites where new tumors form; it is the most feared property of malignant tumors.
B. Carcinogens are physical, chemical or biological agents inducing transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells.
C. Ionising radiations like X-rays/gamma rays and non-ionising UV cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation.
D. Allergy is the spread of sloughed tumor cells via blood to distant sites where new tumors form; it is the most feared property of malignant tumors.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B and C only
45.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Chemical carcinogens in tobacco smoke are a major cause of lung cancer.
B. Oncogenic viruses have viral oncogenes; cellular oncogenes/proto-oncogenes in normal cells can lead to transformation when activated.
C. Early cancer detection is essential because many cancers can be treated successfully if detected early.
D. Chemical carcinogens in colostrum are a major cause of lung cancer.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
46.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Cancer detection uses biopsy/histopathology and blood/bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in leukemias.
B. Radiography, CT and MRI detect internal organ cancers; CT uses X-rays for 3D image, MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations.
C. Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens and molecular biology techniques can help detect certain cancers or inherited susceptibility genes.
D. Cancer detection uses mosquito larval feeding and blood/bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in leukemias.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A and D only
47.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Cancer treatment approaches include surgery, radiation therapy, chemotherapy and immunotherapy.
B. Radiotherapy lethally irradiates tumor cells while protecting surrounding normal tissues.
C. Chemotherapeutic drugs kill cancer cells but may have side effects like hair loss and anemia.
D. Cancer treatment approaches include vaccination and Widal test only.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
48.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Biological response modifiers such as alpha-interferon activate the immune system to destroy tumors.
B. Commonly abused drugs include opioids, cannabinoids and coca alkaloids; most are from flowering plants, some from fungi.
C. Opioids bind to opioid receptors in the central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract.
D. Biological response modifiers such as haemozoin activate the immune system to destroy tumors.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A and D only
(4)B, C and D only
49.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Heroin/smack is diacetylmorphine, a white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound obtained by acetylation of morphine extracted from Papaver somniferum latex.
B. Heroin is generally taken by snorting and injection; it is a depressant and slows body functions.
C. Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid receptors mainly in the brain and natural cannabinoids come from Cannabis sativa inflorescences.
D. Heroin/smack is diacetylmorphine, a white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound obtained by acetylation of morphine extracted from Cannabis sativa latex.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
50.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Cannabis flower tops, leaves and resin are used to make marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja.
B. Cannabinoids are generally taken by inhalation/oral ingestion and affect the cardiovascular system.
C. Cocaine/coca alkaloid is from Erythroxylum coca, interferes with dopamine transport, is usually snorted and stimulates CNS causing euphoria/increased energy; excess causes hallucinations.
D. Cannabis products are made only from roots, never flower tops, leaves or resin.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B and C only
51.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Atropa belladona and Datura are plants with hallucinogenic properties.
B. Barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines and similar drugs used for depression/insomnia are often abused.
C. Morphine is an effective sedative and painkiller useful in patients after surgery.
D. Gambusia and Wuchereria are plants with hallucinogenic properties.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A and D only
52.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Drug abuse occurs when substances are taken for non-medicinal purposes or in amounts/frequency impairing physical, physiological or psychological functions.
B. Tobacco has been used for more than 400 years and is smoked, chewed or used as snuff.
C. Tobacco contains nicotine, which stimulates adrenal glands to release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline, increasing blood pressure and heart rate.
D. Drug abuse occurs when substances are taken for strictly prescribed medicinal use only or in amounts/frequency impairing physical, physiological or psychological functions.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
53.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Smoking is associated with cancers of lung, urinary bladder and throat, bronchitis, emphysema, coronary heart disease and gastric ulcer.
B. Tobacco chewing is associated with increased risk of oral cavity cancer.
C. Smoking increases carbon monoxide in blood and reduces haem-bound oxygen, causing oxygen deficiency.
D. Smoking is unrelated to lung, urinary bladder and throat cancers or respiratory/cardiac diseases.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A and D only
54.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Adolescence is both a period and process of becoming mature in attitudes and beliefs; it is typically 12–18 years and bridges childhood and adulthood.
B. Adolescence is accompanied by biological and behavioural changes and is vulnerable for mental/psychological development.
C. Curiosity, adventure, excitement and experimentation commonly motivate youngsters toward drug/alcohol use.
D. Adolescence is both a period and process of becoming mature in attitudes and beliefs; it is typically 2–8 years and bridges childhood and adulthood.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
55.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Stress from academics/examinations and the perception that substance use is cool/progressive can promote drug/alcohol use; media can promote this perception.
B. Unstable/unsupportive family structures and peer pressure are associated with adolescent drug/alcohol abuse.
C. Addiction is psychological attachment to drug/alcohol effects such as euphoria and temporary well-being, driving use even when harmful.
D. Academic stress and the 'cool' perception never influence adolescent substance use.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
56.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Repeated drug use increases receptor tolerance so higher doses are needed, increasing intake and addiction.
B. Even one use can be a forerunner to addiction, pulling the user into a vicious circle of regular abuse.
C. Dependence is the tendency to develop unpleasant withdrawal syndrome if regular drug/alcohol use is abruptly stopped.
D. Repeated drug use increases antibody H2L2 structure so higher doses are needed, increasing intake and addiction.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
57.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Withdrawal symptoms include anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating, relieved by resuming use; severe withdrawal may need medical supervision.
B. Drug/alcohol abuse can immediately cause reckless behaviour, vandalism and violence; overdose can cause coma and death from respiratory failure, heart failure or cerebral haemorrhage.
C. Combining drugs with alcohol commonly causes overdosing and even deaths.
D. Withdrawal symptoms include nasal congestion and ringworm lesions only, relieved by resuming use; severe withdrawal may need medical supervision.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
58.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Warning signs in youth include academic drop, unexplained absence, poor hygiene, withdrawal, depression, fatigue, aggression, relationship deterioration, loss of hobbies, sleep/eating changes and weight/appetite fluctuations.
B. Intravenous drug users are more likely to acquire AIDS and hepatitis B by sharing infected needles and syringes.
C. AIDS and hepatitis B are chronic and ultimately fatal infections; both can spread through sexual contact or infected blood.
D. Warning signs of drug/alcohol abuse exclude academic drop, absence, poor hygiene and behavioural changes.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B and C only
59.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Chronic drug/alcohol use damages nervous system and liver; alcohol use during adolescence may lead to heavy drinking in adulthood; use during pregnancy harms foetus.
B. Misuse of narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics and certain hormones in sports aims to increase strength, bulk, aggressiveness and performance.
C. Anabolic steroid effects in females include masculinisation, aggression, mood swings, depression, abnormal menstrual cycles, excess hair, enlarged clitoris and deep voice.
D. Chronic drug/alcohol use damages only nails and scalp; alcohol use during adolescence may lead to heavy drinking in adulthood; use during pregnancy harms foetus.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A, B and C only
60.Consider the following statements based strictly on the uploaded PDF. Which statements are correct?
A. Anabolic steroid effects in males include acne, aggression, mood swings, depression, reduced testicles, decreased sperm, kidney/liver dysfunction, breast enlargement, baldness and enlarged prostate.
B. In adolescents, anabolic steroids may cause severe acne and premature closure of growth centres in long bones, resulting in stunted growth.
C. Prevention and control of drug/alcohol abuse involve avoiding undue peer pressure, education and counselling, seeking help, watching danger signs and professional/medical help.
D. In males, anabolic steroids increase sperm production and never affect testes, liver or kidneys.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)B, C and D only
61.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Earlier views considered health as balance of certain humors, as asserted by early Greeks like Hippocrates and Indian Ayurveda.
(2)Yoga has been practised since time immemorial to achieve physical and mental health.
(3)Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are important for maintaining good health.
(4)Health does not simply mean absence of disease or physical fitness; it is only absence of disease or physical fitness.
62.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Typhoid symptoms include sustained high fever of 39°–40°C, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite.
(2)Mary Mallon, Typhoid Mary, was a cook and typhoid carrier who spread typhoid through food for years.
(3)Typhoid pathogens generally enter the small intestine through contaminated food and water and migrate to other organs via blood.
(4)Rhino virus is the pathogenic bacterium causing typhoid fever in humans.
63.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Pneumonia infects alveoli; alveoli get filled with fluid causing severe respiratory problems.
(2)Plasmodium vivax and Entamoeba histolytica cause pneumonia in humans.
(3)Pneumonia symptoms include fever, chills, cough and headache; severe cases may show gray to bluish lips and fingernails.
(4)Pneumonia spreads by inhaling droplets/aerosols from infected persons or by sharing glasses and utensils.
64.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious type and may be fatal.
(2)Wuchereria is a protozoan responsible for malaria; species include P. vivax, P. malariae and P. falciparum.
(3)The parasite initially multiplies in liver cells and then attacks RBCs, causing their rupture.
(4)RBC rupture releases haemozoin, causing chills and high fever recurring every three to four days.
65.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Wuchereria enters humans as sporozoites through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito.
(2)The parasite initially multiplies in liver cells and then attacks RBCs, causing their rupture.
(3)The malarial parasite requires two hosts: human and mosquito; female Anopheles is also the vector.
(4)Female Anopheles mosquito becomes infected by biting an infected person; parasite develops in mosquito to form sporozoites stored in salivary glands.
66.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious type and may be fatal.
(2)The malarial parasite requires two hosts: human and mosquito; female Anopheles is also the vector.
(3)Female Anopheles mosquito becomes infected by biting an infected person; parasite develops in mosquito to form sporozoites stored in salivary glands.
(4)RBC rupture releases histamine, causing chills and high fever recurring every three to four days.
67.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Streptococcus pneumoniae is a protozoan parasite of the large intestine causing amoebiasis/amoebic dysentery.
(2)Houseflies act as mechanical carriers transferring Entamoeba from infected faeces to food and food products.
(3)Contaminated drinking water and food contaminated by faecal matter are main sources of amoebiasis infection.
(4)Amoebiasis symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, and stools with excess mucus and blood clots.
68.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Houseflies act as mechanical carriers transferring Entamoeba from infected faeces to food and food products.
(2)Wuchereria is the common roundworm, an intestinal parasite causing ascariasis.
(3)Contaminated drinking water and food contaminated by faecal matter are main sources of amoebiasis infection.
(4)Ascariasis symptoms include internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and intestinal blockage.
69.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Microsporum and Trichophyton are filarial worms causing elephantiasis/filariasis.
(2)Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are fungi causing ringworm.
(3)Filariasis pathogens are transmitted through the bite of female mosquito vectors.
(4)Ascariasis symptoms include internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and intestinal blockage.
70.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are fungi causing ringworm.
(2)Ringworm shows fluid-filled alveoli on skin, nails and scalp with intense itching.
(3)Heat and moisture help ringworm fungi grow, especially in skin folds like groin or between toes.
(4)Ringworm is acquired from soil or by using towels, clothes or combs of infected individuals.
71.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Vector control includes preventing water stagnation, cleaning coolers, mosquito nets, Gambusia in ponds, insecticide spraying and wire mesh on doors/windows.
(2)For typhoid and ringworm only, the most important measure is control or elimination of insect vectors and breeding places.
(3)For airborne diseases like pneumonia and common cold, close contact with infected persons or belongings should be avoided.
(4)Vaccines have controlled polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and tetanus to a large extent.
72.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Biotechnology is approaching newer and safer vaccines; antibiotics and other drugs help treat infectious diseases.
(2)Physical barriers include skin and mucus coating of respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital epithelia.
(3)Innate immunity works through four barriers: physical, physiological, cellular and cytokine barriers.
(4)Immunity is of two types: benign and malignant.
73.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Physiological barriers include acid in stomach, saliva in mouth and tears from eyes preventing microbial growth.
(2)Cytokine barriers include interferons secreted by virus-infected cells to protect non-infected cells from viral infection.
(3)Innate immunity works through four barriers: humoral, neural, endocrine and genetic barriers.
(4)Cellular barriers include PMNL-neutrophils, monocytes, natural killer cells and tissue macrophages that phagocytose/destroy microbes.
74.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Cellular barriers include PMNL-neutrophils, monocytes, natural killer cells and tissue macrophages that phagocytose/destroy microbes.
(2)Physiological barriers include acid in stomach, saliva in mouth and tears from eyes preventing microbial growth.
(3)Cytokine barriers include haemozoin secreted by virus-infected cells to protect non-infected cells from viral infection.
(4)Physical barriers include skin and mucus coating of respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital epithelia.
75.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes carry out primary and secondary immune responses.
(2)Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific and characterised by memory.
(3)Antibody-mediated response is called humoral immune response because antibodies are found in blood.
(4)Secondary response on first pathogen encounter is low intensity.
76.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Each antibody molecule has two light chains and two heavy chains, represented as H4L4.
(2)IgA, IgM, IgE and IgG are antibody types produced in the body.
(3)B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes carry out primary and secondary immune responses.
(4)Antibody-mediated response is called humoral immune response because antibodies are found in blood.
77.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Passive immunity occurs when ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect against foreign agents.
(2)Passive immunity occurs when host exposure to antigens induces antibody production in the host body.
(3)Active immunity is slow and takes time to give full effective response.
(4)Immunisation with microbes or natural infection can induce active immunity.
78.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Active immunity is slow and takes time to give full effective response.
(2)Haemozoin from mother in early lactation contains abundant IgA antibodies to protect the infant.
(3)The foetus receives some maternal antibodies through the placenta during pregnancy.
(4)Immunisation with microbes or natural infection can induce active immunity.
79.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Vaccines contain antigenic proteins of pathogen or only live virulent pathogen introduced into the body.
(2)Antibodies produced after vaccination neutralise pathogenic agents during actual infection.
(3)Tetanus and snakebite may require direct injection of preformed antibodies/antitoxin, a form of passive immunisation.
(4)Vaccines generate memory B and T cells that quickly recognise the pathogen and overwhelm invaders with antibodies on later exposure.
80.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Allergic symptoms include sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and difficulty in breathing.
(2)Anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroids quickly reduce allergy symptoms.
(3)IgE antibodies are produced against allergens; examples include haemozoin, tobacco smoke and Widal reagent only.
(4)Allergy is the exaggerated immune response to certain environmental antigens; such substances are allergens.
81.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Typhoid fever is an auto-immune disease.
(2)The immune system consists of lymphoid organs, tissues, cells and soluble molecules like antibodies.
(3)Autoimmunity occurs when, due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body attacks self-cells causing damage.
(4)Possible allergens are tested by exposing/injecting the patient with very small doses and studying reactions.
82.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Primary lymphoid organs are spleen and appendix; immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes there.
(2)Lymph nodes trap microbes/antigens from lymph and tissue fluid and activate lymphocytes for immune response.
(3)Secondary lymphoid organs include spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine and appendix.
(4)Bone marrow produces all blood cells including lymphocytes; thymus is near the heart beneath the breastbone and shrinks with age.
83.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)In macrophages, HIV RNA is copied to viral DNA by reverse transcriptase; viral DNA incorporates into host DNA and directs virus particle production.
(2)AIDS prevention steps include safe blood, disposable needles/syringes, condom distribution, controlling drug abuse, safe sex and regular HIV checkups in susceptible populations.
(3)AIDS stands for Acute Inherited Digestive Syndrome: immune deficiency acquired during lifetime, not congenital; syndrome means group of symptoms.
(4)During HIV progression, patients may suffer fever, diarrhoea and weight loss, then opportunistic infections by Mycobacterium, viruses, fungi and Toxoplasma.
84.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)AIDS prevention is the best option because there is no cure; NACO, NGOs and WHO work to educate/prevent spread.
(2)HIV transmission occurs through sexual contact, contaminated blood/blood products, infected needles and infected mother to child through placenta.
(3)Macrophages continue producing virus and act like HIV factories.
(4)AIDS is caused by HIV, a fungus with an envelope enclosing RNA genome.
85.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Anti-retroviral AIDS treatment is partially effective; it prolongs life but cannot prevent inevitable death as described in the text.
(2)In macrophages, HIV RNA is copied to viral DNA by amylase; viral DNA incorporates into host DNA and directs virus particle production.
(3)HIV transmission occurs through sexual contact, contaminated blood/blood products, infected needles and infected mother to child through placenta.
(4)HIV/AIDS is not spread by mere touch or physical contact; it spreads only through body fluids.
86.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Radiography, CT and MRI detect internal organ cancers; CT uses X-rays for 3D image, MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations.
(2)Malignant tumors are proliferating neoplastic cells that grow rapidly, invade/damage tissues and compete for nutrients.
(3)Normal cells show uncontrolled migration only; cancer cells lose this property and continue dividing to form tumors.
(4)Oncogenic viruses have viral oncogenes; cellular oncogenes/proto-oncogenes in normal cells can lead to transformation when activated.
87.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens and molecular biology techniques can help detect certain cancers or inherited susceptibility genes.
(2)Oncogenic viruses have viral oncogenes; cellular oncogenes/proto-oncogenes in normal cells can lead to transformation when activated.
(3)Allergens are physical, chemical or biological agents inducing transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells.
(4)Biological response modifiers such as alpha-interferon activate the immune system to destroy tumors.
88.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Opioids bind to opioid receptors in the central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract.
(2)Chemotherapeutic drugs kill cancer cells but may have side effects like hair loss and anemia.
(3)Heroin is generally taken by snorting and injection; it is a depressant and slows body functions.
(4)Commonly abused drugs include antibodies, interferons and IgA; most are from flowering plants, some from fungi.
89.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Opioids bind to opioid receptors in the central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract.
(2)Morphine is an effective sedative and painkiller useful in patients after surgery.
(3)Heroin/smack is diacetylmorphine, a white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound obtained by acetylation of morphine extracted from Papaver somniferum latex.
(4)Heroin is generally taken by snorting and injection; it is a vaccine and slows body functions.
90.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the uploaded PDF?
(1)Adolescence is both a period and process of becoming mature in attitudes and beliefs; it is typically 2–8 years and bridges childhood and adulthood.
(2)Curiosity, adventure, excitement and experimentation commonly motivate youngsters toward drug/alcohol use.
(3)Adolescence is accompanied by biological and behavioural changes and is vulnerable for mental/psychological development.
(4)Unstable/unsupportive family structures and peer pressure are associated with adolescent drug/alcohol abuse.
91.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Importance of health?
(1)Earlier views considered health as complete absence of pathogens only, as asserted by early Greeks like Hippocrates and Indian Ayurveda.
(2)Good health reduces work efficiency and has no effect on longevity or infant/maternal mortality.
(3)The blackbile-hot personality-fever idea was confirmed by thermometer observations and Harvey's work.
(4)Good health increases work efficiency, productivity, economic prosperity, longevity and reduces infant and maternal mortality.
92.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Complications/diagnosis?
(1)Gut-entering pathogens must survive high blood pressure and resist digestive enzymes.
(2)Pathogens enter the body but never multiply or interfere with vital activities.
(3)Severe typhoid may cause intestinal perforation and death; ELISA confirms typhoid fever.
(4)Severe typhoid may cause intestinal perforation and death; Widal test confirms typhoid fever.
93.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Transmission?
(1)William Harvey, Typhoid Mary, was a cook and typhoid carrier who spread typhoid through food for years.
(2)Severe typhoid may cause intestinal perforation and death; ELISA confirms typhoid fever.
(3)Pneumonia spreads by inhaling droplets/aerosols from infected persons or by sharing glasses and utensils.
(4)Pneumonia spreads by inhaling mosquito bite only from infected persons or by sharing glasses and utensils.
94.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Symptoms?
(1)Common cold symptoms include nasal congestion/discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache and tiredness, usually lasting 3–7 months.
(2)Pneumonia spreads by inhaling mosquito bite only from infected persons or by sharing glasses and utensils.
(3)Common cold symptoms include nasal congestion/discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache and tiredness, usually lasting 3–7 days.
(4)Pneumonia symptoms include fever, chills, cough and headache; severe cases may show bright yellow lips and fingernails.
95.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Hosts/vector?
(1)Wuchereria enters humans as sporozoites through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito.
(2)Malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium harmlessii is the most serious type and may be fatal.
(3)The malarial parasite requires two hosts: human and mosquito; male Culex is also the vector.
(4)The malarial parasite requires two hosts: human and mosquito; female Anopheles is also the vector.
96.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Causative agents?
(1)Ascariasis symptoms are limited to nasal congestion and hoarseness lasting 3–7 days.
(2)Rhino virus, HIV and Plasmodium are fungi causing ringworm.
(3)Wuchereria eggs pass in faeces and contaminate soil, water and plants; healthy persons acquire infection through contaminated water, vegetables and fruits.
(4)Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are fungi causing ringworm.
97.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Vector control methods?
(1)Vector control includes preventing water stagnation, cleaning coolers, mosquito nets, Gambusia in ponds, insecticide spraying and wire mesh on doors/windows.
(2)Vector control includes preventing water stagnation, cleaning coolers, mosquito nets, Papaver somniferum in ponds, insecticide spraying and wire mesh on doors/windows.
(3)Public hygiene does not involve disposal of waste/excreta or disinfection of reservoirs.
(4)Personal hygiene excludes clean drinking water and clean food.
98.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Vaccination control?
(1)Vaccines have controlled polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and tetanus to a large extent.
(2)Vaccines have controlled amoebiasis, ringworm and cancer only to a large extent.
(3)For airborne diseases like cancer and rheumatoid arthritis, close contact with infected persons or belongings should be avoided.
(4)For typhoid and ringworm only, the most important measure is control or elimination of insect vectors and breeding places.
99.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Physical barriers?
(1)Physical barriers include only antibodies in blood coating of respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital epithelia.
(2)Immunity is the inability, conferred by the immune system, to fight disease-causing organisms.
(3)Antibiotics and other drugs have not helped in treating infectious diseases.
(4)Physical barriers include skin and mucus coating of respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital epithelia.
100.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Lymphocytes?
(1)RBCs and platelets carry out primary and secondary immune responses.
(2)B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes carry out primary and secondary immune responses.
(3)Cytokine barriers include haemozoin secreted by virus-infected cells to protect non-infected cells from viral infection.
(4)Cellular barriers include erythrocytes, monocytes, natural killer cells and tissue macrophages that phagocytose/destroy microbes.
101.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Types?
(1)RBCs and platelets carry out primary and secondary immune responses.
(2)Primary response on subsequent encounter with the same pathogen is highly intensified due to memory.
(3)haemozoin, histamine, serotonin and dopamine are antibody types produced in the body.
(4)IgA, IgM, IgE and IgG are antibody types produced in the body.
102.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Active response?
(1)Humoral immunity is mediated by T-lymphocytes.
(2)Active immunity is slow and takes time to give full effective response.
(3)Passive immunity is slow and takes time to give full effective response.
(4)Antibody-mediated response is called cytokine barrier response because antibodies are found in blood.
103.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Passive immunisation?
(1)The foetus receives some maternal antibodies through the salivary gland during pregnancy.
(2)Tetanus and snakebite are treated only by waiting for a slow active immune response.
(3)Vaccination/immunisation is based on loss of immune memory.
(4)Tetanus and snakebite may require direct injection of preformed antibodies/antitoxin, a form of passive immunisation.
104.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Mechanism?
(1)Allergy is due to release of histamine and serotonin from mast cells.
(2)Recombinant DNA technology cannot produce antigenic polypeptides in bacteria or yeast.
(3)Allergy is due to release of haemozoin and dopamine from mast cells.
(4)Tetanus and snakebite are treated only by waiting for a slow active immune response.
105.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Secondary organs?
(1)Secondary lymphoid organs include spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine and appendix.
(2)Autoimmunity occurs when, due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body never recognises self-cells causing damage.
(3)Secondary lymphoid organs include spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of alveoli and appendix.
(4)Anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroids are described as increasing allergy symptoms.
106.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about MALT?
(1)Bone marrow does not produce lymphocytes, and thymus enlarges continuously with age.
(2)Secondary lymphoid organs prevent lymphocytes from interacting with antigens.
(3)MALT is lymphoid tissue in respiratory, digestive and urogenital tract linings and constitutes about 50% of lymphoid tissue in humans.
(4)MALT is lymphoid tissue in respiratory, digestive and urogenital tract linings and constitutes about 5% of lymphoid tissue in humans.
107.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Transmission routes?
(1)HIV transmission occurs through sexual contact, contaminated blood/blood products, infected needles and infected mother to child through salivary gland.
(2)HIV transmission occurs through sexual contact, contaminated blood/blood products, infected needles and infected mother to child through placenta.
(3)MALT is lymphoid tissue in respiratory, digestive and urogenital tract linings and constitutes about 5% of lymphoid tissue in humans.
(4)Lymph nodes do not trap antigens and do not activate lymphocytes.
108.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Treatment?
(1)Anti-retroviral treatment completely cures AIDS and prevents death in the PDF description.
(2)In macrophages, HIV RNA is copied to viral DNA by amylase; viral DNA incorporates into host DNA and directs virus particle production.
(3)Anti-retroviral AIDS treatment is partially effective; it prolongs life but cannot prevent inevitable death as described in the text.
(4)Macrophages continue producing virus and act like antibody factories.
109.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Specific detection?
(1)Oncogenic viruses lack viral oncogenes and cellular proto-oncogenes are absent from normal cells.
(2)Cancer-specific antibodies and molecular biology techniques have no role in cancer detection.
(3)Chemical carcinogens in colostrum are a major cause of lung cancer.
(4)Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens and molecular biology techniques can help detect certain cancers or inherited susceptibility genes.
110.Which option correctly states the PDF fact about Smoking diseases?
(1)Morphine has no sedative or painkiller value after surgery.
(2)Smoking is unrelated to lung, urinary bladder and throat cancers or respiratory/cardiac diseases.
(3)Barbiturates, amphetamines and benzodiazepines are never abused because they are medicines.
(4)Smoking is associated with cancers of lung, urinary bladder and throat, bronchitis, emphysema, coronary heart disease and gastric ulcer.
111.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Mental state can affect health.
Reason: Mind influences the immune system through neural and endocrine systems.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
112.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Typhoid pathogens may migrate to organs through blood.
Reason: Salmonella typhi generally enters through contaminated food and water into the small intestine.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
113.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Pneumonia can cause severe respiratory problems.
Reason: In pneumonia, alveoli get filled with fluid after infection.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
114.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Common cold is a lung infection.
Reason: Rhino viruses infect the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
115.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Malaria fever can recur every three to four days.
Reason: Rupture of RBCs releases haemozoin.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
116.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Houseflies are biological vectors of malaria.
Reason: Houseflies act as mechanical carriers in amoebiasis.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
117.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Innate immunity is non-specific.
Reason: It is present at the time of birth and uses barriers like physical, physiological, cellular and cytokine barriers.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
118.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Secondary immune response is stronger than primary response.
Reason: Acquired immunity is characterised by memory of the first encounter.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
119.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: T-cells directly secrete antibodies.
Reason: T-cells help B-cells produce antibodies.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
120.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Graft rejection is linked to cell-mediated immune response.
Reason: The body differentiates self and non-self.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
121.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Colostrum provides passive immunity to the infant.
Reason: It contains abundant IgA antibodies.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
122.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Allergy involves IgE antibodies.
Reason: Allergy is an exaggerated response to environmental antigens.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
123.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: HIV-infected persons should not be isolated from family and society merely due to touch.
Reason: HIV/AIDS is not spread by mere touch or physical contact.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
124.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Metastasis is feared in malignant tumors.
Reason: Sloughed tumor cells can reach distant sites through blood and start new tumors.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
125.Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Repeated drug use may lead to higher intake.
Reason: Receptor tolerance can increase so receptors respond only to higher doses.
Choose the correct option.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
126.In the life cycle of Plasmodium, which sequence is correct after the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito?
(1)Male mosquito injects RBCs → parasite forms IgE → allergy develops
(2)Sporozoites enter human body → multiplication in liver cells → attack on RBCs → RBC rupture with haemozoin release
(3)Housefly carries sporozoites to food → parasite multiplies in intestine → Widal test becomes positive
(4)Haemozoin enters mosquito salivary glands → sporozoites enter RBCs directly → liver multiplication occurs after fever
127.Which label-function match is correct for the antibody molecule shown in the chapter?
(1)Two RBC chains and two platelet chains; antibody represented as R2P2
(2)Four identical light chains only; antibody represented as L4
(3)Two heavy chains and two light chains; antibody represented as H2L2
(4)One heavy chain and one light chain only; antibody represented as HL
128.For the diagram of lymph nodes/lymphoid organs, which statement matches the PDF?
(1)Lymph nodes are primary lymphoid organs where all blood cells are produced.
(2)Lymph nodes release nicotine into blood circulation.
(3)Lymph nodes store sporozoites in salivary glands.
(4)Lymph nodes trap microbes or antigens entering lymph and tissue fluid and activate lymphocytes.
129.In the retrovirus replication figure, what is the role of reverse transcriptase?
(1)It directly produces IgA in colostrum.
(2)It converts host DNA into haemozoin during malaria.
(3)It stains biopsy sections for cancer diagnosis.
(4)It helps copy viral RNA into viral DNA in macrophages.
130.Which statement is correct for the figure/process of HIV infection in helper T-lymphocytes?
(1)Released progeny viruses attack other helper T-lymphocytes, causing progressive decline.
(2)HIV infects only RBCs and never immune cells.
(3)The process is confirmed by Widal test.
(4)Helper T-lymphocytes increase continuously, preventing opportunistic infections.
131.A question shows dry, scaly, itchy lesions on skin/nails/scalp. Which causative group best fits the PDF?
(1)Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
(2)Salmonella typhi and Haemophilus influenzae
(3)Papaver somniferum and Cannabis sativa
(4)Plasmodium vivax and P. falciparum
132.A diagram shows chronic inflammation of a lower limb due to lymphatic vessel involvement. Which disease is indicated?
(1)Typhoid fever caused by Salmonella
(2)Ringworm caused by Rhino virus
(3)Amoebiasis caused by Entamoeba
(4)Elephantiasis/filariasis caused by Wuchereria
133.Which process best represents vaccination as given in the PDF?
(1)IgE released from mast cells → histamine neutralises pathogen → Widal test confirms
(2)Ready-made pathogen injected → no antibodies produced → memory cells destroyed
(3)Antigenic proteins or weakened/inactivated pathogen introduced → antibodies and memory cells generated → rapid response on later exposure
(4)Sporozoites enter liver → RBC rupture → fever every three to four days
134.Which diagnostic technique statement is correctly matched?
(1)CT and MRI are only vector-control measures.
(2)CT is the Widal test; MRI detects typhoid carriers.
(3)CT uses IgE antibodies; MRI uses female Anopheles mosquitoes.
(4)CT uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image; MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations.
135.Which option correctly represents the source-to-drug relationship shown around Figures 7.7 and 7.8?
(1)Heroin is obtained from Erythroxylum coca and acts mainly by dopamine transport interference.
(2)Morphine is extracted from Cannabis sativa leaves and heroin is produced by fermentation of yeast.
(3)Morphine is extracted from latex of Papaver somniferum and heroin is obtained by acetylation of morphine.
(4)Morphine is a cannabinoid from Datura flower branches.
136.A diagram shows leaves of Cannabis sativa. Which product list is correctly associated?
(1)Interferon, adrenaline, nor-adrenaline and haemozoin
(2)Smack, morphine, heroin and IgA
(3)Coke, crack, Widal reagent and ELISA
(4)Marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja
137.A flowering branch of Datura is shown. Which statement matches the PDF?
(1)Datura is the source of hepatitis B vaccine.
(2)Datura, along with Atropa belladona, is noted for hallucinogenic properties.
(3)Datura is the causative bacterium of pneumonia.
(4)Datura produces sporozoites stored in salivary glands.
138.Which disease-source-transmission chain is correct?
(1)Amoebiasis — Rhino virus — contaminated doorknobs only
(2)Amoebiasis — Wuchereria — lower limb lymphatic inflammation
(3)Amoebiasis — Entamoeba histolytica — food/water contaminated by faecal matter with houseflies as mechanical carriers
(4)Amoebiasis — Plasmodium falciparum — female Anopheles as biological vector
139.Which cancer-treatment flow is consistent with the PDF?
(1)Widal test and Gambusia fish are the common curative approaches for cancer.
(2)Radiotherapy protects tumor cells and destroys normal tissues.
(3)Chemotherapy has no side effects and is specific for all tumors.
(4)Surgery/radiotherapy/chemotherapy may be combined; α-interferon can activate immunity as a biological response modifier.
140.Which tobacco-effect process is correct?
(1)Nicotine stimulates adrenal glands to release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline, increasing blood pressure and heart rate.
(2)Nicotine releases IgA from colostrum, lowering blood pressure.
(3)Smoking reduces carbon monoxide and increases haem-bound oxygen.
(4)Tobacco chewing decreases oral cavity cancer risk.
141.Identify the correct set of diseases that are mainly addressed by personal/public hygiene measures because food or water transmission is important.
(1)Cancer, rheumatoid arthritis and allergy only
(2)Malaria, filariasis and dengue only
(3)AIDS, hepatitis B and cancer only
(4)Typhoid, amoebiasis and ascariasis only
142.Choose the correct combination for innate immunity barriers.
A. Skin and mucus coating
B. Acid, saliva and tears
C. PMNL-neutrophils, monocytes, NK cells and macrophages
D. Interferons from virus-infected cells
(1)C only
(2)B and D only
(3)A and B only
(4)A, B, C and D
143.Which combination contains only secondary lymphoid organs from the PDF?
(1)Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches and appendix
(2)Bone marrow, thymus and spleen only
(3)Bone marrow and thymus only
(4)Thymus, placenta, salivary gland and liver
144.Which routes can transmit HIV according to the PDF?
A. Sexual contact with infected person
B. Contaminated blood/blood products
C. Sharing infected needles
D. Infected mother to child through placenta
E. Mere touch
(1)A, B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C, D and E
(3)B, D and E only
(4)A, C and E only
145.Which set contains only examples associated with allergy in the uploaded PDF?
(1)Papaver, morphine and heroin
(2)Dust mites, pollens and animal dander
(3)Widal test, Salmonella and Typhoid Mary
(4)Haemozoin, sporozoites and Anopheles
146.Which cancer statement set is fully correct?
A. Cancer cells lose contact inhibition.
B. Benign tumors normally remain confined.
C. Malignant cells can invade and damage surrounding tissues.
D. Metastasis involves distant tumor formation via blood.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and B only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)C and D only
147.Which set correctly matches drug, source and major effect?
(1)Cannabinoids — Erythroxylum coca — dopamine transport interference
(2)Heroin — Papaver somniferum/morphine derivative — depressant
(3)Cocaine — Cannabis sativa — depressant
(4)Morphine — Datura — common cold treatment
148.Which warning signs belong to drug/alcohol abuse among youth as per the PDF?
(1)Only Widal positivity and intestinal perforation
(2)Improved school performance, fixed appetite and permanent calmness
(3)Only nasal congestion for 3–7 days
(4)Drop in academic performance, unexplained absence, poor hygiene, withdrawal and behavioural changes
149.Which performance-enhancement misuse categories are named in the sports context?
(1)Narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics and certain hormones
(2)Antihistamines, Widal reagents, Gambusia and interferons
(3)Sporozoites, haemozoin, macrophages and lymph nodes
(4)IgA, IgE, IgG and IgM
150.Which prevention/control set for adolescent drug/alcohol abuse is correct?
(1)Use steroids during adolescence to close growth centres early
(2)Avoid undue peer pressure; education and counselling; seek help; identify danger signs; professional/medical help
(3)Increase peer pressure; hide danger signs; avoid counselling
(4)Use non-disposable needles; avoid checkups; promote drug abuse

Answer Key

11
23
34
41
51
63
73
82
94
104
111
123
132
143
152
163
173
184
193
201
212
223
233
243
252
261
274
284
291
303
312
323
332
342
351
363
373
382
391
403
413
423
433
444
454
461
473
481
492
504
512
521
531
543
553
561
573
584
594
602
614
624
632
642
651
664
671
682
691
702
712
724
733
743
754
761
772
782
791
803
811
821
833
844
852
863
873
884
894
901
914
924
933
943
954
964
971
981
994
1002
1014
1022
1034
1041
1051
1063
1072
1083
1094
1104
1111
1122
1131
1144
1151
1164
1171
1181
1194
1201
1211
1222
1231
1241
1251
1262
1273
1284
1294
1301
1311
1324
1333
1344
1353
1364
1372
1383
1394
1401
1414
1424
1431
1441
1452
1463
1472
1484
1491
1502