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NEET ]1[ Contd...

NEET UG Biology Chapter10

Duration: 180 minutesTotal Marks: 600Questions: 150Negative Marking: -1

Instructions:

  1. Each question has four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Choose the most correct answer.
  2. Each correct answer carries 4 marks.
  3. Each wrong answer will deduct 1 marks.
  4. Unanswered questions will not be penalised.
1.According to the chapter, biotechnology essentially deals with:
(1)Only chemical synthesis of drugs outside living systems
(2)Only ecological conservation without biological product formation
(3)Only natural selection of crop varieties without industrial production
(4)Industrial-scale production of biopharmaceuticals and biologicals using genetically modified microbes, fungi, plants and animals
2.Which set is listed as applications of biotechnology?
(1)Therapeutics, diagnostics, GM crops, processed food, bioremediation, waste treatment and energy production
(2)Only photosynthesis, respiration, transpiration and mineral absorption
(3)Only vaccines, fossils, evolution and ecological succession
(4)Only crop rotation, cattle breeding, soil erosion and taxonomy
3.Which option correctly gives the three critical research areas of biotechnology?
(1)Improved catalyst, optimal engineering conditions and downstream processing
(2)Mutation, natural selection and genetic drift
(3)Explants, somaclones and pomato only
(4)Serum analysis, urine analysis and conventional breeding
4.The chapter mainly introduces biotechnology applications for improving human life especially in:
(1)Digestive physiology and plant anatomy only
(2)Climate classification and plate tectonics
(3)Food production and health
(4)Taxonomy and nomenclature only
5.Which trio represents the three options for increasing food production?
(1)Totipotency, transduction and translation
(2)Toxicity testing, vaccine testing and patenting
(3)Serum analysis, ELISA and autoradiography
(4)Agrochemical-based agriculture, organic agriculture and genetically engineered crop-based agriculture
6.The Green Revolution, as stated in the chapter:
(1)Solved hunger permanently without limitations
(2)Failed to increase food supply at all
(3)Tripled food supply but was still insufficient for the growing population
(4)Depended mainly on RNA interference
7.Increased crop yield during the Green Revolution was mainly due to:
(1)Production of human insulin in E. coli
(2)Formation of somatic hybrids only
(3)Better management practices and use of agrochemicals
(4)ELISA-based crop screening
8.Why were alternatives to conventional crop improvement needed?
(1)Agrochemicals were often expensive and existing varieties had yield limits under conventional breeding
(2)RNA probes could replace crop improvement
(3)Conventional breeding already produced unlimited yield increase
(4)Agrochemicals were always free for developing-world farmers
9.Tissue culture developed mainly because traditional breeding:
(1)Was a method for detecting HIV
(2)Could not keep pace with demand or provide fast, efficient crop-improvement systems
(3)Was the same as ELISA
(4)Could assemble insulin chains
10.In tissue culture, whole plants are regenerated from explants grown:
(1)By antibody-antigen interaction
(2)Directly in polluted soil without sterile conditions
(3)In test tubes under sterile conditions in special nutrient media
(4)Only inside animal pancreas
11.Totipotency refers to:
(1)Patent protection on Basmati rice
(2)Capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell or explant
(3)Capacity of Bt toxin to form pores in insect gut
(4)Inability of mature insulin to lose C peptide
12.Which set of components must the tissue-culture medium provide?
(1)Basmati aroma compounds and patent documents
(2)Antibodies, antigens, C peptide and retroviral capsid only
(3)Sucrose, inorganic salts, vitamins, amino acids and growth regulators such as auxins and cytokinins
(4)Bt crystals, alkaline gut fluid and bollworm proteins only
13.Micropropagation means:
(1)Producing thousands of plants through tissue culture in a short duration
(2)Producing Basmati patents through cross-border claims
(3)Producing antibodies against a pathogen by ELISA
(4)Producing mature insulin by cattle pancreas extraction
14.Plants produced by micropropagation are genetically identical to the original plant and are called:
(1)Probes
(2)Cry proteins
(3)Protoxins
(4)Somaclones
15.Which set contains food plants commercially produced using micropropagation in the chapter?
(1)Neem, turmeric and Basmati
(2)Rosie, mouse and rabbit
(3)Cotton, tobacco and corn borer
(4)Tomato, banana and apple
16.One important tissue-culture application is recovery of:
(1)Healthy plants from diseased plants
(2)Mature insulin from C peptide
(3)Antibodies by PCR
(4)Patent rights from bioresources
17.In a virus-infected plant, which region is stated to be free of virus?
(1)Apical and axillary meristem
(2)Root cortex and phloem only
(3)Mature infected leaves only
(4)Cotyledons and seed coat only
18.Virus-free plants can be obtained by removing and culturing:
(1)C peptide in vitro
(2)Basmati grains in patent office
(3)Bt crystals in acidic pH
(4)Meristem in vitro
19.Meristem culture has succeeded in:
(1)Turmeric, neem and rice patents
(2)Cancer, Alzheimer’s and cystic fibrosis
(3)Banana, sugarcane and potato
(4)Rosie, sheep and fish
20.Naked protoplasts are obtained after:
(1)Allowing antibodies to bind antigens
(2)Digesting plant cell walls so cells are surrounded only by plasma membrane
(3)Adding C peptide to mature insulin
(4)Crossing Basmati with semi-dwarf varieties
21.Protoplasts from two varieties with desirable traits can be fused to form:
(1)Radioactive probes that fail to hybridise
(2)Adenosine deaminase injections
(3)Hybrid protoplasts that may grow into a new plant
(4)GEAC approval certificates
22.The hybrids obtained by fusion of somatic protoplasts are called:
(1)Somatic hybrids
(2)Somaclones
(3)Protoxins
(4)Transposons
23.Pomato was produced by fusing protoplasts of:
(1)Tomato and potato, but it lacked desired commercial combination
(2)Tobacco and Bt cotton, and became a commercial insecticide
(3)E. coli and cattle pancreas, producing C peptide
(4)Rice and neem, producing alpha-lactalbumin
24.GM crops are presented as a possible solution to:
(1)Obtain maximum yield and reduce harmful effects of fertilisers and chemicals
(2)Eliminate all ethical regulation
(3)Make animal insulin more allergenic
(4)Replace PCR diagnosis
25.GMO refers to organisms whose genes have been:
(1)Detected by only urine testing
(2)Altered by manipulation
(3)Removed by serum analysis
(4)Protected from all patent laws
26.Which abiotic stresses are specifically listed for GM-crop tolerance?
(1)Turmeric, neem, rice and Basmati
(2)Cold, drought, salt and heat
(3)Cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s
(4)Tobacco budworm, armyworm, beetles and mosquitoes
27.A direct benefit of pest-resistant GM crops is:
(1)Deletion of ADA gene
(2)Increased need for chemical pesticides
(3)Failure of PCR amplification
(4)Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides
28.Genetic modification also helps reduce:
(1)Antigen-antibody interaction
(2)Post-harvest losses
(3)Disulphide bridges in mature insulin
(4)All bioethical regulations
29.Increased mineral-usage efficiency in GM plants helps prevent:
(1)Early exhaustion of soil fertility
(2)Formation of alpha-lactalbumin
(3)Autoradiographic film exposure
(4)ADA gene deletion
30.Golden rice is specifically described as:
(1)Vitamin A-enriched rice
(2)Rice enriched with human alpha-lactalbumin
(3)Rice used for ADA gene therapy
(4)Rice that produces Bt toxin against corn borer only
31.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. GM can create tailor-made plants supplying starches, fuels and pharmaceuticals to industries.
B. Production of pest-resistant plants can decrease the amount of pesticide used.
C. Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis.
D. GM tailor-made plants are described only for producing antibodies and not industrial resources.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
32.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Production of pest-resistant plants can decrease the amount of pesticide used.
B. Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis.
C. Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacterium and expressed in plants to provide insect resistance without insecticides, creating a bio-pesticide.
D. Pest-resistant plants increase the amount of pesticide needed.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A and D only
(4)B, C and D only
33.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis.
B. Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacterium and expressed in plants to provide insect resistance without insecticides, creating a bio-pesticide.
C. Examples of Bt crops include Bt cotton, Bt corn, rice, tomato, potato and soybean.
D. Bt toxin is produced by Escherichia coli in the chapter.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
34.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacterium and expressed in plants to provide insect resistance without insecticides, creating a bio-pesticide.
B. Examples of Bt crops include Bt cotton, Bt corn, rice, tomato, potato and soybean.
C. Certain Bt strains produce proteins that kill lepidopterans such as tobacco budworm and armyworm.
D. Bt toxin gene is expressed in plants only to make them sensitive to insects.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
35.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Examples of Bt crops include Bt cotton, Bt corn, rice, tomato, potato and soybean.
B. Certain Bt strains produce proteins that kill lepidopterans such as tobacco budworm and armyworm.
C. Certain Bt strains also kill coleopterans such as beetles and dipterans such as flies and mosquitoes.
D. Bt crops are limited to Bt cotton and exclude corn, rice, tomato, potato and soybean.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
36.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Certain Bt strains produce proteins that kill lepidopterans such as tobacco budworm and armyworm.
B. Certain Bt strains also kill coleopterans such as beetles and dipterans such as flies and mosquitoes.
C. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular growth phase.
D. Lepidopterans listed in the chapter are beetles and mosquitoes.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
37.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Certain Bt strains also kill coleopterans such as beetles and dipterans such as flies and mosquitoes.
B. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular growth phase.
C. Bt crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein.
D. Coleopterans are tobacco budworm and armyworm in the chapter.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A and D only
38.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular growth phase.
B. Bt crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein.
C. The Bt toxin exists as an inactive protoxin in Bacillus, so it does not kill the bacterium.
D. Bt protein crystals are formed only after the toxin is activated in the insect gut.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A and D only
39.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Bt crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein.
B. The Bt toxin exists as an inactive protoxin in Bacillus, so it does not kill the bacterium.
C. In the insect gut, alkaline pH solubilises the crystals and converts inactive Bt toxin into its active form.
D. Bt crystals contain human insulin chains.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A, B and C only
40.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. The Bt toxin exists as an inactive protoxin in Bacillus, so it does not kill the bacterium.
B. In the insect gut, alkaline pH solubilises the crystals and converts inactive Bt toxin into its active form.
C. Activated Bt toxin binds to midgut epithelial cells, creates pores, causes swelling and lysis, and eventually kills the insect.
D. Bt toxin kills Bacillus because it is active inside the bacterium.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B and C only
41.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. In the insect gut, alkaline pH solubilises the crystals and converts inactive Bt toxin into its active form.
B. Activated Bt toxin binds to midgut epithelial cells, creates pores, causes swelling and lysis, and eventually kills the insect.
C. Specific Bt toxin genes are isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into crop plants such as cotton.
D. Acidic pH of insect gut activates Bt toxin in the NCERT line.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
42.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Activated Bt toxin binds to midgut epithelial cells, creates pores, causes swelling and lysis, and eventually kills the insect.
B. Specific Bt toxin genes are isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into crop plants such as cotton.
C. The choice of Bt gene depends on the crop and target pest because most Bt toxins are insect-group specific.
D. Activated Bt toxin kills insects by preventing disulphide-bond formation.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)B, C and D only
43.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Specific Bt toxin genes are isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into crop plants such as cotton.
B. The choice of Bt gene depends on the crop and target pest because most Bt toxins are insect-group specific.
C. cryIAc and cryIIAb control cotton bollworms, while cryIAb controls corn borer.
D. Bt toxin genes are isolated from the insect and then incorporated into bacteria only.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
44.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. The choice of Bt gene depends on the crop and target pest because most Bt toxins are insect-group specific.
B. cryIAc and cryIIAb control cotton bollworms, while cryIAb controls corn borer.
C. Several nematodes parasitise many plants and animals, including human beings.
D. Bt gene choice is independent of crop and target pest.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
45.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. cryIAc and cryIIAb control cotton bollworms, while cryIAb controls corn borer.
B. Several nematodes parasitise many plants and animals, including human beings.
C. Meloidogyne incognita infects roots of tobacco plants and greatly reduces yield.
D. cryIAb controls cotton bollworms whereas cryIAc controls corn borer.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A and D only
46.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Several nematodes parasitise many plants and animals, including human beings.
B. Meloidogyne incognita infects roots of tobacco plants and greatly reduces yield.
C. RNA interference was used as a novel strategy to prevent nematode infestation.
D. Nematodes parasitise only plants and never animals or humans in this chapter.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
47.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Meloidogyne incognita infects roots of tobacco plants and greatly reduces yield.
B. RNA interference was used as a novel strategy to prevent nematode infestation.
C. RNAi occurs in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
D. Meloidogyne incognita infects the leaves of cotton and increases yield.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
48.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. RNA interference was used as a novel strategy to prevent nematode infestation.
B. RNAi occurs in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
C. RNAi silences specific mRNA through a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA.
D. RNA interference was used to promote nematode infestation.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
49.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. RNAi occurs in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
B. RNAi silences specific mRNA through a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA.
C. Complementary RNA can come from RNA-virus infection or mobile genetic elements that replicate through an RNA intermediate.
D. RNAi occurs only in bacteria as a cellular defence method.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A and D only
50.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. RNAi silences specific mRNA through a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA.
B. Complementary RNA can come from RNA-virus infection or mobile genetic elements that replicate through an RNA intermediate.
C. Agrobacterium vectors introduce nematode-specific genes into the host plant.
D. RNAi increases translation of the target mRNA through complementary dsRNA.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
51.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Complementary RNA can come from RNA-virus infection or mobile genetic elements that replicate through an RNA intermediate.
B. Agrobacterium vectors introduce nematode-specific genes into the host plant.
C. The introduced DNA is arranged to produce both sense and antisense RNA in host cells.
D. Complementary RNA cannot come from viruses or transposons.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B and C only
52.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Agrobacterium vectors introduce nematode-specific genes into the host plant.
B. The introduced DNA is arranged to produce both sense and antisense RNA in host cells.
C. Sense and antisense RNAs form complementary dsRNA that initiates RNAi.
D. Agrobacterium vectors were used to introduce ADA cDNA into lymphocytes in this section.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A, B and C only
53.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. The introduced DNA is arranged to produce both sense and antisense RNA in host cells.
B. Sense and antisense RNAs form complementary dsRNA that initiates RNAi.
C. The parasite cannot survive in a transgenic host expressing specific interfering RNA, so the plant is protected.
D. The introduced DNA produces only sense RNA, not antisense RNA.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)B, C and D only
54.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Sense and antisense RNAs form complementary dsRNA that initiates RNAi.
B. The parasite cannot survive in a transgenic host expressing specific interfering RNA, so the plant is protected.
C. The introduced DNA is arranged to produce both sense and antisense RNA in host cells.
D. Sense and antisense RNAs fail to form dsRNA because they are non-complementary.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
55.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. The parasite cannot survive in a transgenic host expressing specific interfering RNA, so the plant is protected.
B. Sense and antisense RNAs form complementary dsRNA that initiates RNAi.
C. The introduced DNA is arranged to produce both sense and antisense RNA in host cells.
D. The nematode survives better in a host expressing specific interfering RNA.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
56.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Recombinant DNA processes enable mass production of safe and more effective therapeutic drugs.
B. Recombinant therapeutics do not induce unwanted immunological responses like similar products isolated from non-human sources may do.
C. About 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved worldwide, and 12 are being marketed in India as stated in the chapter.
D. Recombinant DNA processes make therapeutics less safe and less effective.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A and D only
57.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Recombinant therapeutics do not induce unwanted immunological responses like similar products isolated from non-human sources may do.
B. About 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved worldwide, and 12 are being marketed in India as stated in the chapter.
C. Adult-onset diabetes can be managed by taking insulin at regular intervals.
D. Recombinant therapeutics usually induce unwanted immune responses because they are non-human.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
58.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. About 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved worldwide, and 12 are being marketed in India as stated in the chapter.
B. Adult-onset diabetes can be managed by taking insulin at regular intervals.
C. Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs.
D. The chapter says 300 recombinant therapeutics are marketed in India.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
59.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Adult-onset diabetes can be managed by taking insulin at regular intervals.
B. Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs.
C. Animal-source insulin caused some patients to develop allergy or reactions to foreign protein.
D. Adult-onset diabetes cannot be managed by regular insulin according to the chapter.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B and C only
60.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs.
B. Animal-source insulin caused some patients to develop allergy or reactions to foreign protein.
C. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains, A and B, linked by disulphide bridges.
D. Insulin was earlier extracted from the liver of slaughtered cattle and pigs.
(1)A and D only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, B, C and D
(4)A, B and C only
61.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Animal-source insulin caused some patients to develop allergy or reactions to foreign protein.
B. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains, A and B, linked by disulphide bridges.
C. In mammals, insulin is synthesised as a pro-hormone containing an extra C peptide.
D. Animal-source insulin never caused allergy or reactions in any patient.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B, C and D
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B and C only
62.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains, A and B, linked by disulphide bridges.
B. In mammals, insulin is synthesised as a pro-hormone containing an extra C peptide.
C. A pro-hormone needs processing before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone.
D. Insulin has only one long chain and no disulphide bridges.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
63.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. In mammals, insulin is synthesised as a pro-hormone containing an extra C peptide.
B. A pro-hormone needs processing before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone.
C. The C peptide is absent in mature insulin and removed during maturation.
D. In mammals, insulin is synthesised directly as mature insulin without C peptide.
(1)A and D only
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
64.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. A pro-hormone needs processing before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone.
B. The C peptide is absent in mature insulin and removed during maturation.
C. The main rDNA challenge in insulin production was getting insulin assembled into a mature form.
D. A pro-hormone is already fully mature and functional without processing.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A, B and C only
(3)B, C and D only
(4)A and D only
65.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. The C peptide is absent in mature insulin and removed during maturation.
B. The main rDNA challenge in insulin production was getting insulin assembled into a mature form.
C. In 1983, Eli Lilly prepared DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin.
D. C peptide remains attached in mature insulin.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A and D only
66.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. The main rDNA challenge in insulin production was getting insulin assembled into a mature form.
B. In 1983, Eli Lilly prepared DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin.
C. The A- and B-chain DNA sequences were introduced into E. coli plasmids to produce insulin chains.
D. The main rDNA challenge was to delete the ADA gene.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)B, C and D only
(3)A and D only
(4)A, B, C and D
67.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. In 1983, Eli Lilly prepared DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin.
B. The A- and B-chain DNA sequences were introduced into E. coli plasmids to produce insulin chains.
C. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bonds to form human insulin.
D. Eli Lilly prepared insulin DNA sequences in 1997.
(1)B, C and D only
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)A, B, C and D
68.Identify the correct statements from A–D:
A. The A- and B-chain DNA sequences were introduced into E. coli plasmids to produce insulin chains.
B. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bonds to form human insulin.
C. Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a diagnosed gene defect in a child or embryo.
D. A and B chain sequences were inserted into human pancreas cells rather than E. coli plasmids.
(1)A, B, C and D
(2)A and D only
(3)A, B and C only
(4)B, C and D only
69.Which statement is incorrect about rDNA-produced human insulin?
(1)Chains A and B are produced separately.
(2)The final product forms human insulin.
(3)The C peptide is deliberately kept attached to mature insulin.
(4)Chains A and B are combined using disulphide bonds.
70.Which statement is NOT true about gene therapy?
(1)It allows correction of a diagnosed gene defect in a child or embryo.
(2)It is primarily described as deleting useful normal genes from every tissue.
(3)It is a collection of methods.
(4)It targets genetic defects.
71.Choose the incorrect statement regarding gene therapy:
(1)It can be used to treat disease.
(2)Genes may be inserted into tissues.
(3)Genes are inserted into a person’s cells.
(4)It works only by giving antigen-antibody injections.
72.Which statement contradicts the chapter’s principle of correcting a genetic defect?
(1)Correction is linked to gene function takeover.
(2)A normal gene can be delivered.
(3)The delivered normal gene compensates for a non-functional gene.
(4)The normal gene is delivered to worsen the defective phenotype.
73.Which option is incorrect about the first clinical gene therapy?
(1)It was given to a four-year-old girl.
(2)It was first done for Bt-cotton resistance.
(3)It was given in 1990.
(4)It involved ADA deficiency.
74.Which statement is incorrect about ADA?
(1)It is the Bt gene controlling corn borer.
(2)Its deficiency is discussed in gene therapy.
(3)It stands for adenosine deaminase.
(4)It is crucial for immune-system function.
75.ADA deficiency is caused by:
(1)Deletion of the gene for ADA
(2)A defect linked to adenosine deaminase
(3)Loss of a functional ADA gene
(4)Overproduction of Bt protoxin in the gut
76.Which is NOT a treatment approach mentioned for ADA deficiency?
(1)Enzyme replacement therapy
(2)Bone marrow transplantation
(3)Functional ADA injection
(4)Golden-rice feeding as a complete cure
77.Which statement is incorrect about enzyme replacement therapy for ADA deficiency?
(1)It is not described as completely curative in the chapter.
(2)It permanently corrects every case without further concern.
(3)It is mentioned along with bone marrow transplantation.
(4)Functional ADA is given by injection.
78.In ADA gene therapy, the first step involves:
(1)Direct insertion of Bt toxin into rice
(2)Lymphocytes from the patient’s blood being grown in culture outside the body
(3)Testing polio vaccine in monkeys
(4)Formation of pomato from protoplasts
79.Choose the incorrect statement about ADA gene therapy:
(1)Agrobacterium is stated as the vector for lymphocytes in this therapy.
(2)A retroviral vector is used.
(3)Modified lymphocytes are returned to the patient.
(4)Functional ADA cDNA is introduced into lymphocytes.
80.Why is periodic infusion required in the described ADA gene therapy?
(1)The engineered lymphocytes are not immortal.
(2)Mature insulin still has C peptide.
(3)Golden rice loses vitamin A.
(4)The Bt crystals remain insoluble.
81.Which condition could provide a permanent cure for ADA deficiency according to the chapter?
(1)Only repeating enzyme injection forever
(2)Introducing the ADA gene into cells at early embryonic stages
(3)Removing meristem from diseased plants
(4)Crossing Basmati with semi-dwarf rice
82.Which statement is NOT correct about disease treatment?
(1)Effective treatment benefits from early detection.
(2)Pathophysiology is irrelevant once symptoms appear.
(3)Understanding pathophysiology is important.
(4)Early diagnosis is important.
83.Which option is incorrect about conventional diagnosis?
(1)Urine analysis is included among conventional methods.
(2)These methods do not allow early detection as per the chapter.
(3)Serum analysis is included among conventional methods.
(4)They are described as the best tools for very early detection.
84.Which set contains techniques used for early diagnosis?
(1)Cry genes, Bt crystals and cotton bollworms only
(2)Basmati patents, GEAC and biopiracy only
(3)Tissue culture, pomato and micropropagation
(4)Recombinant DNA technology, PCR and ELISA
85.Which statement is incorrect about pathogen detection timing?
(1)Pathogen concentration is highest only before infection begins.
(2)By symptom stage, concentration is already high.
(3)Early molecular diagnosis can help before symptom visibility.
(4)Pathogen presence is usually suspected only after symptoms.
86.PCR helps detect very low pathogen concentration because it:
(1)Forms antigen-antibody complexes
(2)Amplifies nucleic acid
(3)Removes C peptide from insulin
(4)Creates somatic hybrids
87.Which is NOT listed as a PCR use in the chapter?
(1)Approving Basmati patents through GEAC
(2)Detecting HIV in suspected AIDS patients
(3)Detecting mutations in suspected cancer patients
(4)Identifying many genetic disorders
88.Which statement is incorrect about probe-based molecular diagnosis?
(1)The probe is a mature insulin chain joined by disulphide bonds.
(2)A single-stranded DNA or RNA can be tagged with a radioactive molecule.
(3)The probe hybridises with complementary DNA.
(4)Autoradiography is used for detection.
89.A clone with a mutated gene may not appear on photographic film because:
(1)The film detects only Basmati aroma
(2)The clone produces alpha-lactalbumin
(3)The probe becomes Bt toxin
(4)The probe does not have complementarity with the mutated gene
90.ELISA is based on:
(1)Alkaline gut activation of protoxin
(2)Fusion of tomato and potato protoplasts
(3)Antigen-antibody interaction
(4)Disulphide-bond joining of insulin chains
91.Which statement about ELISA is incorrect?
(1)It can detect antibodies synthesised against a pathogen.
(2)It is used in infection detection.
(3)It detects infection only by amplifying nucleic acids.
(4)It can detect pathogen antigens.
92.Identify the correctly matched pair.
(1)Transgenic animals — animals without any foreign gene expression
(2)Transgenic animals — Bt crystals inside Bacillus only
(3)Transgenic animals — DNA manipulated to express an extra foreign gene
(4)Transgenic animals — plants produced only by meristem culture
93.Which option correctly matches transgenic animal examples/proportion?
(1)Rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish produced; over 95% are mice
(2)No mice exist as transgenic animals
(3)Only cows produced; over 95% are sheep
(4)Only fish produced; over 95% are rabbits
94.Match the use with the example: normal physiology/development study is linked with:
(1)Meristem culture for virus-free plants
(2)Antigen-antibody interaction only
(3)Basmati patent novelty
(4)Gene regulation and factors such as insulin-like growth factor
95.Which disease-model set is correctly matched with transgenic animals?
(1)Cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s
(2)Tomato, banana and apple
(3)Cold, drought, salt and heat
(4)Tobacco budworm, armyworm, beetles and mosquitoes
96.Identify the correctly matched biological product pair.
(1)CryIAb — human babies' nutrition
(2)Human α-1-antitrypsin — emphysema
(3)ADA — cotton bollworm control
(4)Alpha-lactalbumin — nematode RNAi vector
97.Similar attempts using transgenic animals are mentioned for treatment of:
(1)Phenylketonuria and cystic fibrosis
(2)Golden rice and Basmati patenting
(3)Pomato and somaclones
(4)Tobacco mosaic and cotton bollworm only
98.Rosie is correctly matched with:
(1)First transgenic cow, 1997, human protein-enriched milk at 2.4 g/L
(2)First Bt crop, 1990, ADA cure
(3)First transgenic mouse, 1983, insulin A chain
(4)First Basmati patent, 200,000 varieties
99.Which match is correct for Rosie's milk?
(1)Biopiracy — authorised compensatory use
(2)C peptide — retained in mature insulin
(3)Bt protoxin — soluble in acidic pH
(4)Human alpha-lactalbumin — nutritionally more balanced for human babies
100.Vaccine safety testing is correctly matched with:
(1)GEAC and alpha-lactalbumin production
(2)PCR and Bt-cotton bollworm control
(3)Somatic hybridisation and ADA deficiency
(4)Transgenic mice and polio vaccine safety testing
101.Chemical safety testing with transgenic animals involves:
(1)Lower sensitivity to toxins and slower results
(2)Greater sensitivity to toxic substances and faster results
(3)Direct replacement of ELISA by micropropagation
(4)Absence of any gene manipulation
102.Which pair is correctly matched under ethical issues?
(1)Manipulation of living organisms — need for regulation and ethical standards
(2)Basmati — human insulin chain
(3)Biopiracy — fully authorised paid use
(4)GEAC — PCR amplification enzyme
103.Genetic modification in ecosystems is associated with:
(1)Only C peptide removal
(2)Guaranteed predictable benefit without regulation
(3)Complete absence of ethical concerns
(4)Unpredictable results when modified organisms are introduced
104.GEAC is correctly expanded as:
(1)Gene Expression Autoradiography Centre
(2)Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(3)Green Energy Agriculture Council
(4)Genetic Enzyme Antibody Complex
105.Which option correctly states the role of GEAC?
(1)Producing human insulin chains in E. coli
(2)Detecting HIV by PCR
(3)Culturing meristem to make virus-free plants
(4)Validating GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services
106.Patent-related problems are associated with:
(1)Only proinsulin maturation
(2)Only Bt toxin activation in insect gut
(3)Only tissue-culture medium composition
(4)Modification/usage of living organisms for public services
107.Public anger is linked with companies patenting technologies based on:
(1)Resources long used by farmers and indigenous people
(2)Completely new resources unrelated to any region
(3)Sterile nutrient media for explants only
(4)Only synthetic molecules without biological source
108.Which rice-diversity statement is correctly matched?
(1)Rice is absent from Asia’s agricultural history
(2)Rice diversity is unrelated to biopiracy discussion
(3)India has only 27 total rice varieties
(4)India has an estimated 200,000 rice varieties and very rich rice diversity
109.Which pair is correctly matched?
(1)Basmati — unique aroma/flavour and 27 documented varieties in India
(2)Turmeric — Bt corn borer gene
(3)Golden rice — alpha-lactalbumin milk
(4)Neem — first clinical gene therapy
110.Assertion (A): The Basmati patent controversy is discussed as an ethical/patent issue.

Reason (R): In 1997, an American company obtained patent rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent and Trademark Office.
(1)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
111.Assertion (A): The patented 'new' Basmati was claimed as novelty although it was derived from Indian farmers' varieties crossed with semi-dwarf varieties.

Reason (R): The chapter says the patent extended to functional equivalents.
(1)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(2)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(3)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
112.Assertion (A): Turmeric and neem appear in the chapter under patent-related traditional herbal medicine issues.

Reason (R): Attempts have been made to patent uses, products and processes based on Indian traditional herbal medicines.
(1)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
113.Assertion (A): Biopiracy involves unauthorised use of bioresources without compensatory payment.

Reason (R): It is usually defined as authorised use with full benefit-sharing from the start.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(3)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
114.Assertion (A): Developing and underdeveloped countries are described as rich in biodiversity and traditional knowledge.

Reason (R): Industrialised nations are described as financially rich but poor in biodiversity and traditional knowledge.
(1)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(4)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
115.Assertion (A): Traditional knowledge can reduce time, effort and expenditure in commercialisation.

Reason (R): Traditional knowledge related to bioresources can be exploited to develop modern applications.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(3)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
116.Assertion (A): Some nations are developing laws to prevent unauthorised exploitation of bioresources and traditional knowledge.

Reason (R): The chapter links this with realisation of injustice, inadequate compensation and benefit sharing.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(3)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
117.Assertion (A): Bt toxin does not kill Bacillus thuringiensis itself.

Reason (R): In the bacterium, the Bt toxin protein exists as an inactive protoxin.
(1)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
118.Assertion (A): The active Bt toxin eventually kills susceptible insects.

Reason (R): It binds midgut epithelial cells, creates pores, causes swelling and lysis.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(3)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
119.Assertion (A): The choice of Bt gene depends on crop and target pest.

Reason (R): Most Bt toxins are insect-group specific.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
120.Assertion (A): RNAi protects tobacco plants from Meloidogyne incognita in the described strategy.

Reason (R): dsRNA formed in host cells silences specific nematode mRNA.
(1)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(4)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
121.Assertion (A): Recombinant therapeutics are considered safer and more effective in the chapter.

Reason (R): They do not induce unwanted immunological responses like non-human-source products may do.
(1)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
122.Assertion (A): Engineered lymphocytes require periodic infusion in ADA gene therapy.

Reason (R): These cells are not immortal.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
123.Assertion (A): PCR can detect low pathogen concentration before symptoms.

Reason (R): PCR amplifies nucleic acid.
(1)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(3)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
124.Assertion (A): ELISA is useful in infection detection.

Reason (R): ELISA depends on antigen-antibody interaction and can detect antigen or antibody.
(1)Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(2)Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3)Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4)Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
125.Based on Figure 10.1, which interpretation is correct?
(1)It contrasts a cotton boll destroyed by bollworms with a fully mature cotton boll.
(2)It shows ADA cDNA entry into lymphocytes.
(3)It shows proinsulin maturation into insulin.
(4)It shows Rosie producing alpha-lactalbumin milk.
126.In Figure 10.2, the protected transgenic plant roots are protected because:
(1)Host-generated dsRNA triggers RNAi against the nematode.
(2)Bt protoxin remains inactive in Bacillus.
(3)Mature insulin keeps its C peptide.
(4)ELISA amplifies pathogen DNA.
127.Figure 10.3 on proinsulin maturation mainly tests which idea?
(1)A and B chains are joined by peptide bonds only after ELISA.
(2)Insulin is assembled through meristem culture.
(3)C peptide is removed and mature insulin contains A and B chains joined by disulphide bonds.
(4)C peptide remains permanently in mature insulin.
128.Which sequence correctly represents Bt toxin action after ingestion by an insect?
(1)Bt crystal → ELISA → autoradiography → vaccine safety
(2)Inactive protoxin → solubilisation in alkaline gut → active toxin → midgut pore formation → lysis/death
(3)Protoplast fusion → pomato → alpha-lactalbumin → corn borer death
(4)Active toxin → acidic gut → C peptide removal → ADA correction → death
129.Which sequence correctly represents RNAi-based protection against Meloidogyne incognita?
(1)Agrobacterium vector introduces nematode-specific genes → sense and antisense RNA form → dsRNA forms → nematode mRNA is silenced
(2)PCR amplifies insulin chains → C peptide remains → Bt toxin forms → nematode survives
(3)Probe binds mutated gene → film appears → ADA injection → bollworm control
(4)Meristem is removed → virus-free plant forms → Rosie milk is produced → GEAC approves
130.Which sequence best represents rDNA production of human insulin by Eli Lilly?
(1)Extract animal insulin → retain C peptide → add Bt toxin → test by ELISA
(2)Cross Basmati with semi-dwarf varieties → patent → alpha-lactalbumin → insulin
(3)Introduce ADA cDNA into lymphocytes → culture meristem → form pomato → produce insulin
(4)Prepare A/B chain DNA sequences → introduce into E. coli plasmids → produce chains separately → combine by disulphide bonds
131.Which process is correctly matched with its diagram-like outcome?
(1)GEAC approval → Bt toxin activation in alkaline gut
(2)PCR → mature insulin disulphide bonds
(3)Protoplast fusion → antibody detection by ELISA
(4)Meristem culture → virus-free plants from infected plants
132.A student labels C peptide as present in mature insulin. What is the error?
(1)C peptide is the same as cryIAb.
(2)C peptide is the GEAC approval form.
(3)C peptide is removed during maturation and absent in mature insulin.
(4)C peptide is the antigen in ELISA.
133.In a table of Bt genes and target pests, which row should be marked correct?
(1)cryIAb — cotton bollworms only
(2)ADA cDNA — cotton bollworms
(3)cryIAc — corn borer only
(4)cryIAc/cryIIAb — cotton bollworms
134.In a comparison table of diagnosis tools, which pairing is correct?
(1)ELISA — protoplast fusion
(2)PCR — amplification of nucleic acid
(3)Serum analysis — early molecular detection by rDNA
(4)Probe — antigen-antibody reaction only
135.In a flowchart of ADA gene therapy, which step follows culture of lymphocytes outside the body?
(1)Formation of somatic hybrid pomato
(2)Introduction of functional ADA cDNA using a retroviral vector
(3)Activation of Bt protoxin in alkaline gut
(4)Issuing Basmati patent rights
136.In a table of transgenic animal uses, which entry is correct?
(1)Chemical safety — animals made less sensitive to toxins
(2)Disease models — only plant diseases
(3)Biological products — Bt crystals in cotton bolls
(4)Vaccine safety — transgenic mice used for testing polio vaccine safety
137.Choose the option containing only correct statements about tissue culture and somatic hybridisation.
A. Explants are grown under sterile conditions in special nutrient media.
B. Totipotency permits whole-plant regeneration from any cell/explant.
C. Somaclones are genetically unrelated to the parent plant.
D. Pomato resulted from tomato and potato protoplast fusion but lacked desired commercial combination.
E. Micropropagation produces thousands of plants in a short duration.
(1)A, B, D and E only
(2)B, C and E only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)A, B, C, D and E
138.Choose the correct set about GM crops and Bt technology.
A. Golden rice is vitamin A-enriched.
B. Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis.
C. Bt toxin is active inside Bacillus and kills it.
D. Bt gene choice depends on crop and target pest.
E. cryIAb controls corn borer.
(1)A, B and C only
(2)A, C and E only
(3)A, B, D and E only
(4)B, C, D and E only
139.Select the correct statements about RNAi-mediated nematode resistance.
A. Meloidogyne incognita infects tobacco roots.
B. RNAi silences mRNA using complementary dsRNA.
C. Agrobacterium vectors introduce nematode-specific genes.
D. Sense and antisense RNA form dsRNA.
E. The parasite survives better in the transgenic host.
(1)A, B, C and D only
(2)B, D and E only
(3)A, B, C, D and E
(4)A, C and E only
140.Choose the correct combination about recombinant insulin.
A. Earlier insulin was extracted from cattle and pigs.
B. Mature insulin has A and B chains joined by disulphide bridges.
C. Mature insulin contains C peptide.
D. Eli Lilly introduced A/B chain sequences into E. coli plasmids.
E. A and B chains were combined after separate production.
(1)A, B, C, D and E
(2)A, B, D and E only
(3)A, C and D only
(4)B, C and E only
141.Choose the correct combination about ADA gene therapy.
A. First clinical gene therapy was in 1990.
B. ADA is crucial for immune function.
C. ADA deficiency is due to deletion of ADA gene.
D. Retroviral vector introduces functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes.
E. Periodic infusion is required because engineered lymphocytes are immortal.
(1)A, C and E only
(2)B, D and E only
(3)A, B, C and D only
(4)A, B, C, D and E
142.Choose the correct combination about molecular diagnosis.
A. PCR can detect low pathogen concentrations by amplifying nucleic acid.
B. PCR is used for HIV detection and gene mutations in suspected cancer.
C. ELISA is based on antigen-antibody interaction.
D. A mutated clone may not appear if a radioactive probe lacks complementarity.
E. Conventional serum/urine analysis is ideal for early detection.
(1)A, B, C and D only
(2)B, D and E only
(3)A, C and E only
(4)A, B, C, D and E
143.Choose the correct combination about ethical issues.
A. GEAC judges validity of GM research and safety of GM organisms.
B. Biopiracy includes lack of proper authorisation and compensatory payment.
C. India has an estimated 200,000 rice varieties.
D. Basmati has 27 documented varieties in India.
E. Industrialised nations are described as rich in biodiversity and traditional knowledge.
(1)A, B, C, D and E
(2)A, B, C and D only
(3)B, D and E only
(4)A, C and E only
144.A farmer has a virus-infected banana stock but wants healthy clones without changing genotype. Which strategy best matches the chapter?
(1)Cross Basmati with semi-dwarf varieties
(2)Culture virus-free apical/axillary meristem in vitro
(3)Inject functional ADA enzyme into the plant
(4)Use ELISA to remove C peptide
145.A crop is damaged by a specific insect group. Which NEET-safe logic should be used before selecting a Bt gene?
(1)Use ELISA because it forms pores in insect midgut
(2)Use ADA cDNA because it controls bollworms
(3)Choose the Bt gene according to crop and targeted pest because Bt toxins are insect-group specific
(4)Use any cry gene because all Bt toxins kill all insects equally
146.A student proposes to cure ADA deficiency permanently by periodically injecting functional ADA only. What is the best correction?
(1)Bt toxin should be introduced into lymphocytes
(2)PCR alone permanently replaces the ADA gene
(3)Injection of ADA is identical to permanent gene correction in every case
(4)Periodic enzyme therapy is not completely curative; early embryonic introduction of the ADA gene could be permanent
147.A diagnostic lab wants to detect HIV before high pathogen load and symptoms. Which method and principle fit the chapter?
(1)GEAC because it detects radioactive probes
(2)PCR because it amplifies nucleic acid from very low pathogen concentration
(3)ELISA because it removes C peptide
(4)Meristem culture because it creates somaclones
148.A clone does not appear on autoradiographic film after probing. Which inference is most consistent with the chapter?
(1)The sample must be virus-free meristem
(2)The mutated gene lacked complementarity with the probe
(3)The probe became alpha-lactalbumin
(4)The clone necessarily produced Bt cotton
149.A pharmaceutical company wants an animal model for human disease and faster toxicity testing. Which chapter concept is most relevant?
(1)Golden rice vitamin enrichment
(2)Basmati patent extension
(3)Transgenic animals designed for disease models and toxicity/safety testing
(4)Pomato formation through protoplast fusion
150.A company patents a product based on biological resources used by indigenous communities without authorisation or compensation. Which term fits best?
(1)Totipotency
(2)Micropropagation
(3)Biopiracy
(4)Autoradiography

Answer Key

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63
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81
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103
112
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822
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